The Error of KJV-Onlyism

I said it was a software program that has a database. I know they say it is A.I. But there is no such thing as a software program having intelligence like a human. It’s not possible. The name is incorrect. It is a software program that draws from a database. To say it is not in part a database means you do not understand what it is. If it is not drawing from a database then where is it getting it’s information from? Any software program like ChatGPT is drawing from some sort of information source. It does not think on it’s own. The information is stored somewhere for it to reply back, right?

As for the bad things you said about: Well, I can equally make my case the same way with just the internet. There are lots of evils on internet, it does that mean you stop using the internet because of it, unless one cannot control themselves. One can just use the internet to pay their pay bills and talk on Christian forums. Like any tool, it can be used for good or bad. I also have corrected ChatGPT before. Certain basic things it is going to get correct most times. That is why I gave you the dictionary sources. In either case, you throw the baby out with the bath water because you have had a negative experience with it. Even Google or other internet searches can have biased or bad results. It does not mean you stop using internet searches because its searches have gone bad. I noticed Google is not as good as it used to be in giving me the results like it did in the past. But you will be proud to know that your ChatGPT does not like the KJV Bible believing position. When I write, it speaks from the scholarly standpoint. That is because Modern Scholarship is popular. It doesn’t get certain King James Bible facts right. I had to correct it. So I do double check it with other sources.

Huh wasnt prostitution the oldest profession.
Harlotry is just another word for prostitution.

Again Tamar and Rahab were harlots (prostitutes) in the Bible. Gomer played the harlot meaning she acted like one in her God-ordained marriage. She had a thing for jewels which I imagine her lovers gave her in exchange for her affections.

I guess some KJVers can be prudes and dont want to admit that somone in the Bible acted unholy. But thats your interpretation, not that the KJV shies away from that. It just uses another word, harlot.

?! Anyway its not Hosea who was in the wrong. it was Gomer. Was Hosea to blame for acting on Gods instructions or his wife going astray. No. But he had to win her back just as God had to win Israel back.

I guess some people cant admit that a woman may have a mind of her own and not actually really want to be married to the person they are married to.

Sure Israel didnt have a choice to be Gods chosen ones either, nor could they see how good God was to them. Many felt that to be a burden and his covenant a fetter or they werent able to be free, or maybe too much of an expectation. They naturally rebelled just like teenagers want to be free from their parents.

I dont think Leah was all that keen to be married to Jacob either but Jacob got told to marry her.
It was Leah who was the mother in Jesus lineage.

Surely God wouldnt allow someone to have two wives at the same time, but thats what happened. In the OT. They probably learned how stupid it was thats why in the NT its recommended husbands only have one wife at a time.

So now you are using Wikipedia? Some believe that is an unreliable source that people can just change and edit to whatever they like. I remember one Christian poster complaining to me about it who was heavily into Modern Scholarship and the Greek languages on another forum. Granted, I am not saying that you cannot use Wikipedia, but the point here is that sometimes it is also not always correct just like ChatGPT is not always correct.

History has shown that prostitution is sex for money. You can get into different meanings of what constitutes sexual activity, but at the end of the day the core meaning of the word “prostitute” is sex for money as it’s primary meaning for most of history and today. Say that word to people and that’s how people will understand that word.

As for the cult prostitute thing you brought up: Actually, I have a KJVer Sword Bible Translation that tries to push the Modern Scholarship false agenda in its definitions by saying that a sodomite is a cult male prostitute. That’s stupid. We can just read the story of Sodom and Gomorrah for ourselves in the Bible and see what happened there as to get an answer.

Dinah was treated as a harlot by her brothers when she went with Shechem when she actually wasnt being a harlot. She consented and was in love with Schehem but her brothers thought the worst, that he was paying her.

They ended up making things worse because Shechem was perpared to convert and take Dinah as his bride.

Wonder how KJV onliers react to this story. Which is in KJV. Why deny harlotry existed or that unbelievers appear to fornicate because they may not know any better. Or maybe they dont and are just assumed they do, when it was probably all innocent.

Why is it some people get angry about what happens in the Bible doesnt fit with their idea of God. Or that people can be immoral. I would think that all those tales of immorality in the Bible are for our instruction on what NOT to do.

Not sure your point here. How does this disprove believing the King James Bible is the pure Word of God?
I am sure you can find the same thing in other Bibles translations, right?

When talking about the Bible it is best if we can get a definition for a word in the Bible based on how that word is used, if possible. As I have pointed out before, Genesis 38 clearly describes the traditional understanding of a harlot or prostitute. Sex is exchanged for some kind of payment whether it be money or some form of goods.

Granted, whoredom can refer to spiritual unfaithfulness like idolatry and not sex for some kind of payment. It depends on the context. The Bible is its own best interpreter, but I have discovered that Modern Scholarship does not always define words based on the context, which just shows you that they are not always correct or trustworthy.

Again, this position is flawed. There are Charismatics who believe God talks to them verbally. Yet, not all Charismatics agree with each other. If you have Modern Bibles that contradict each other and they also all teach false doctrines, and you rely on: “Well, God is going to guide me to what is true or not” type mentality, how do you know you a really being guided by God and not by your own thoughts or by some false spirit? As an English speaker: If you don’t believe in a perfect Bible, I don’t believe God will guide you to use Modern Translations because of the false things within them. Modern Bibles are like dictionaries created by men. The true Word of God (the KJB) is a work of God and has led to great revivals in the past. It was once America’s national book. It’s why I believe America was greatly blessed. But you are free to believe whatever you like. At the end of the day, you have to answer to something ultimately. My authority is in the Bible and not my own thoughts or what some spirit is telling me or some feeling. My authority is not in some voice or impressions. My authority and trust in is in the Bible. If you don’t have that, then I don’t believe God can truly talk to you properly. One’s attempt to reach God will be greatly crippled because without the Bible we would not know about the proper way of salvation, and or to do His will. If you are just trusting in false bibles, and you believe God can guide you to what is true or false, that is no real way to determine truth because you could be under the false impression you are guided by God when that may not be the case.

Hold him accountable for not believing in the King James Version? Is that what you're claiming here? That we will be
held accountable by God for not using this version exclusively? I am asking sincerely, I don't want to misunderstand or misrepresent what you are saying here.

Why do you always add to what I say? I didn't say or imply any of this. It's not that the information is wrong, it's just not what I'm talking about.
So I'll ask: do people using the KJV have error in their doctrine? Do unredeemed people truly understand any version of the Bible? Can a person get saved in a church using a corrupted translation? What you understand about God, did it come from your endeavor or the revelation of God?
You are welcome to go beyond the scope of my questions. But if you do, you are beyond the scope of my original address. I tell you this not because what you share won't be true; simply irrelevant to me.

I have friends who are Calvinists. They are in error.

A person can get saved by reading a gospel tract, but the tract should contain specific verses that lead the person to the saving knowledge of Jesus Christ.

What's a Calvinist?

I thought all scripture could do that. Do you trust verses or God?

That's like claiming God will hold us accountable for eating our steak medium-rare instead of well-done.

I'll bite...someone who follows John Calvin's fatalism. God has elected, before the foundation of the world, those who would be in Christ and those who would end up in hell.

The two cannot be separated.

Do they use the KJV?

So then any verse on a tract would suffice.

God's word cannot be separated from God Himself, but He is necessarily greater than His word, and exists independently of it.