As in the days of Noah... ALL flesh had CORRUPTED itself

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cv5

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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PaulThomson said:
Not necessarily. It is possible to read the text as describing women seduced into worshipping demons and allowing them to enter their bodies and to upgrade in the womb the genetic code of children they conceived from men, so that the children were upsized and demonically possessed from birth by "Legions" and capable of manifesting superhuman strength. There is no need to read into the text angels having sexual intercourse with human women. and producing half-breeds.
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Not much of an upgrade to be totally evil, non-human and beyond redemption.

Some have opined that Satan's game plan was to create a race of utterly unredeemable souls, thereby ruining God's plan of salvation.
 
Thunderrr-mental

Thunderrr-mental

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Gideon300 said:
The Northern Kingdom inhabitants were pretty much absorbed into the cultures of various nations that invaded them. Some say that the 10 tribes were dispersed around the world. I'm not convinced. What was the Northern Kingdom became Samaria. As the Bible says, Jews despised the Samaritans as they were considered apostate. Samaria was in between Galilee and Judea. Most Jews avoided the region of Samaria. The woman at the well was intrigued. She said to Jesus, "You Jews........" No love lost between Samaritans and Jews, that's for sure.
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Yeah but Jesus must have been a Hebrew then because he fed the samarian spiritual water 😂
 
ZNP

ZNP

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Thunderrr-mental said:
so you must be saying all the othe 11 tribes of Isreal where short for Jews then.
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How could you twist what I said to that? No, Judah was the Southern kingdom, that was where Jerusalem was, Jew was/is short of Judah. Very few if any descendants of Israel know their lineage over the last two thousand years to know which tribe they are in. Also, this term Jews is most likely a nickname given by Gentiles, do Spaniards call themselves Spics? There are similar terms for Italians, and Mexicans, and Japanese and Chinese, etc. Your questions don't make any sense? Is there a Bible verse somewhere in your question you haven't gotten to yet?
 
Thunderrr-mental

Thunderrr-mental

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Everlasting-Grace said:
Jesus was a jew.

As the child of Abraham Issac and Jacob, He was a part of Israel

Hebrew is a language
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ZNP said:
How could you twist what I said to that? No, Judah was the Southern kingdom, that was where Jerusalem was, Jew was/is short of Judah. Very few if any descendants of Israel know their lineage over the last two thousand years to know which tribe they are in. Also, this term Jews is most likely a nickname given by Gentiles, do Spaniards call themselves Spics? There are similar terms for Italians, and Mexicans, and Japanese and Chinese, etc. Your questions don't make any sense? Is there a Bible verse somewhere in your question you haven't gotten to yet?
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Genesis 14:13

King James Version



13 And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew; for he dwelt in the plain of Mamre the Amorite, brother of Eshcol, and brother of Aner: and these were confederate with Abram
 
Thunderrr-mental

Thunderrr-mental

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Aaron56 said:
No.

Hebrew is derived from Eber, a great-grandson of Noah.
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Thunderrr-mental said:
Genesis 14:13

King James Version



13 And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew; for he dwelt in the plain of Mamre the Amorite, brother of Eshcol, and brother of Aner: and these were confederate with Abram
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so this scripture is saying Abraham was a religion 🤔
 
ZNP

ZNP

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Thunderrr-mental said:
so this scripture is saying Abraham was a religion 🤔
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It is saying that Abraham was a descendant of Eber, however, one possible entymology of Hebrew is "river crosser". While in Babylon Abram had been very strong to stand against idolatry, destroying idols that they had. As a result Nimrod threw him into a furnace of fire, but he didn't die, so Nimrod sent him out of Babylon, 200 men followed him. This is recorded in Jasher which the OT references.
 
GaryA

GaryA

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ZNP said:
If that were true all women would be sinless.
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No - all sons and daughters receive the same from their father and mother.

Jesus is the only person ever to be conceived not-from-a-human-male-father.

All women have been conceived from a human father.
 
GaryA

GaryA

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WayneNSO said:
If sin is inherited which I do not see anywhere in the Bible, how can it not pass to females but only pass to males? What is the explanation for this from those that believe in inherited sin ? Just wondering.
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It is not sin itself that gets passed on; rather, the sin nature.

Please see my previous post.
 
ZNP

ZNP

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GaryA said:
No - all sons and daughters receive the same from their father and mother.

Jesus is the only person ever to be conceived not-from-a-human-male-father.

All women have been conceived from a human father.
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that does not include Eve, so does this mean Eve was sinless and without the flesh?
 
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