How do you get saved?

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Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Yes, I know, sister: Keep up the good work!
Thank you. Here are a couple of more examples for those with eyes that see:

John 13:20 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send
receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.

Matthew 10:40 He who receives you receives Me, and he who receives Me receives the One who sent.

No amount of proof convinces those whose minds are already made up.
 
Dec 27, 2018
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I don’t know whether he was or not but his case has nothing to do with what the Bible says. How people RESPOND To its message is up to the individual and between them and God.
Adolf Hitler was Baptised just like you said.

Water Baptised with a priest saying the words in the name of the father and of the son and of the holy Ghost.

If Hitler was Baptised in the name of the holy Ghost as you say he supposed to ,then wouldn't he be Baptised in the name of the holy Ghost like you say?


This is what you are preaching ,isn't it?

Water baptism with common man saying words?
 
Dec 27, 2018
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Mark 16:16 doesn’t teach baptismal regeneration here my friend. It is the preaching of the Gospel that saves. The baptism here mentions results from belief in Christ and his gospel. The conjunction “and” is used to mean “before”, introducing a consequence, actual or predictive, hence the word “baptized” is dropped in the second clause. As a consequence of "belief", in the Gospel is salvation, then getting water baptized is a sign of your belief.
I was Baptised in the holy Ghost as a consequence of my belief

Mark 16:15-16 doesn't say anything about water.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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I was Baptised in the holy Ghost as a consequence of my belief

Mark 16:15-16 doesn't say anything about water.
and why it does not say anything about water/wet baptism as this is also a parallel to Matthew 28? Thanks
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
3,673
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I’m not sure I understand your question. Verse 22 of James 2 says that “faith” and “works” work together. It’s not one or the other. It’s not one without the other . It’s both working together. It’s pretty simple; if it’s not by faith only (verse 24) and He says faith and works work together then the proper conclusion is it’s BOTH— working together, just like verse 22 says. Regardless, of what kind of works He is talking about—it still says NOT BY FAITH ONLY.. To say we are saved by faith only is to blantenly contradict God.
I am not saying that we are not saved by both faith and works. What I am saying is that the faith and works we are saved by are Christ's - from His offering. To be able to perceive this, I believe we must first try to do what you said in a prior post - to compare the spiritual with the spiritual - that a verse should not be taken solely on its face because it was built from/upon the doctrine of other verses. I realize that James 2:24 seems on its surface to be compete and self-evident, but if we look further into being justified before God, we can see that it comes by/through Christ alone - and that is what makes Him the Saviour. Christ's offering has within it His faith and His works (and His righteousness). So, for those whom He saves, they become freely imbued in them. Therefore, any true faith and/or works that we may possess, perform or exhibit, first comes from having been justified by Christ - we cannot justify ourselves, but only by Christ. So, the faith and works spoken of James 2:24, originated from Christ and are given unto those whom He saves, and thereby, are they manifested in their lives.


[Act 13:39 KJV] 39 And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.

[Rom 5:16 KJV] 16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift: for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift [is] of many offences unto justification.

[Gal 2:16 KJV] 16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

[Rom 4:25 KJV] 25 Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

[Phl 3:9 KJV] 9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

[Heb 7:25 KJV] 25 Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.
 
Dec 27, 2018
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and why it does not say anything about water/wet baptism as this is also a parallel to Matthew 28? Thanks
The reason it does not say anything about water is because Jesus does not Baptise in water.

Jesus baptises in the holy Ghost.


Your welcome.
 
Dec 27, 2018
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“No,” said Peter, “you shall never wash my feet.” Jesus answered, “Unless I wash you, you have no part with me.”




There are a lot of people who have not been washed by Jesus.They believe they are clean because they took a bath in water .


They just don't get it.

Mathew 3:11
“I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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lol

There is no difference in adding circumcision, or water baptism. it is still a different gospel.

Paul is calling out any who would preach we begin in the spirit (faith) then perfect it in the flesh (works) it does not matter what work it is
There is a big difference.

God commanded everyone living in the NT to be water baptized in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin. Just as He commanded circumcision of those living in the OT. Those who refuse to believe and obey His command of water baptism will find themselves cut off from the covenant.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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1. You must study the word.
2. Lets see what Peter said.

Repent This is written in 2nd person plural. in other words. the command is given to everyone

And let every one of you be baptized - written in 3rd person singular. So this is not only a separate command, but is not even given to the same people

for the remission of sin, This is the object of the command be baptized, in other words. Because you received remission of sin be baptized.

And ye shall recieve the gift of the spirit, again, this goes 2nd person plural. so this is the object of the first commend, repent.

in other words. this can be interpreted as the following

repent and you shall receive the gift of the spirit,. and let every one of you (who repented) be baptized on the fact you have received remission of sin (proven by the fact you have already received the spirit)

and this is proven by the next words.

And they who GLAD:LY RECIEVED (repented) were baptized.. Just Like peter commanded them to be.. Not to be saved, but because they were saved.
A study of scripture does not involve twisting it in an attempt to make it say what you want it to say.

Scripture reveals God's command of water baptism in the name of Jesus applies to everyone. (Acts 2:38-41; 8:12-18, 35-40; 9:17-18; 10:43-48; 16:13-15, 28-33; 19:1-7; 22:16) Paul was still preaching its necessity 20+ years after God's command was first revealed at Pentecost. (Acts 19)
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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Once again, if faith alone is the absolutely only thing required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention alone or only in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24;6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the one 1 word that Jesus does not mention 9 different times in each of these complete statements "Alone." What happened to only faith?

Mark 16:16 - Whoever believes (believes only? NO) and is baptized shall be saved but he who does not believe will be condemned.

Your argument is with Mark 16:16 and not with me.

Many will present general verses about the need for faith as proof texts for non-obedience salvation in a effort to force the mandatory allegiance to faith alone regeneration theology. These are the modern day Pharisees that cherry pick generalities and label them as definitive. Branding anyone who disagrees as a works-salvationist. Any high school English student can see the forced understanding of such a notion. No one presents an argument based on general statements masquerading them as explicit all-encompassing commands. In other words, these texts only prove that faith is one of the associated requirements for salvation, rather than the absolutely only thing needed for salvation.
This is odd thinking

If I say that in order to recieve something, I have to do this one thing. I do nto need to add the word alone.

In John 3: 15 - 18 - Jesus said it is through faith. He does not mention any other means, hence he does not need to add the word alone to know. it is by faith alone

Matt 16 is not an issue. Jesus did not contradict himself. we have two things here

1. it could be spirit baptism.. Which is automatic and happens the moment a person believes
2. Condemnation is based on non belief, not faith but not baptized.
3. there is a more than average possibility it is not even the word of god but added much later

so in any case. It does not prove your point
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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I don’t know what version you are using but the NKJ version uses a different verb in Acts 10:43. You used the word”receives” which is present tense, but it actually uses the verb “will receive” which is future tense. God is precise with His meanings.
Not sure where you got this info. But believes in the NKJ is Ho Pisteuo - Literally the believer or a believer, it is a verb, present tense, active participle which is accusative and singular.



For example, He makes an argument based on the SINGULAR form of the noun and NOT the plural in Galations 3:16.
Gal 3: 16 Now to Abraham and his Seed were the promises made. He does not say, “And to seeds,” as of many, but as of one, “And to your Seed,” who is Christ.

Did you make a mistake. i do nto see the word Believe in this verse.
I know that a common belief is salvation by faith only; but that contradicts James 2:24 that says we are NOT saved by “faith only.
1. James did nto contradict paul
2. James said those people never had faith it was dead.
3. James claimed their faith was dead, and asked, can that claimed faith save them

so to use this to say we are not saved by faith alone would be a mistake

AS I have said before, scripture does not contradict scripture. If our conclusion contradicts other scriptures then our conclusion is wrong. The fault is with US—not God’s Word.
100% agreement, so lets interprete James 2 in a way it does not contradict John 3: 14 - 18, Eph 2: 8 - 9, Romans 4 and Titus 3: 15

Yes, belief is the first step, and it is that belief that causes us to do ALL JESUS says in Mark 16:16. Only believers will be baptized. Psalms 119:160 says we have to take the “SUM” of God’s word—put it all together to get the truth. So, Acts 10:43 cannot contradict the very plain words of Jesus in Mark 16:16. Put those two verses together with the right verb and you can see that believers “WILL RECEIVE” forgiveness of sins when they are baptized like Jesus says in Mark 16:16 and this is just exactly what Peter said in Acts 2:38-“… be baptized in the name of JESUS FOR THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS. THUS, Mark 16:16, Acts 10:43, and Acts 2:38 and James 2:24 all harmonize with each other. There is no contradiction or confusion. AND…Cornelius and his house in Acts 10 were the believers who were baptized when Peter COMMANDED them to.
I am confused as to the infatuation with mark 16. Jesus said the same words in John 3. yet not once did he mention baptize. In fact Jesus gave the gospel in many places in John, and never mentions being baptized to be born again, or saved from Gods wrath, or to be given life. did Jesus make a big mistake?
Acts 2: 38 is another confusing verse which ontradicts other aspects of the word. But it easily resolved once we actually study it, If we do. We see the gift of the spirit was given because of repentance only. and those who believed (repented) were told to be baptized on the account they recieved remission of sin.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,254
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...
And let every one of you be baptized - written in 3rd person singular. So this is not only a separate command, but is not even given to the same people...
I could not understand how you were not seeing the truth. And then my attention was drawn to the word "let" in your scripture reference. This led me to search which Bible translation added the word. This is a perfect example of how Bible translations can cause people to believe things that oppose the actual word of God. That one word has caused you to believe something that is not true.

Peter's command was in answer to a question posed by those who already believed in Jesus. His answer to them as well as the crowd was, "Repent, AND be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin..."

Repentance is a choice to willingly turn from one's sin and pursue God's righteousness. And belief and submission to God's command of water baptism is also a choice; one that results in having one's sins washed away as revealed in the word.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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There is a big difference.
No there is not.

God commanded them in the OT to be circumcised. Yet no one in the OT was saved because they were circumcised. in fact many were saved and were never circumcised. proving it was not a requirement

Same in the NT, God commands us to be baptized in water, But people were saved who were not yet baptized in water. so it is not a requirment.

God commanded everyone living in the NT to be water baptized in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin. Just as He commanded circumcision of those living in the OT. Those who refuse to believe and obey His command of water baptism will find themselves cut off from the covenant.
Well. they will nto be cut of from salvation if they are saved.

No one is saved because they allowed another sinner to immerse them in water
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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A study of scripture does not involve twisting it in an attempt to make it say what you want it to say.
then why do you do it?
Scripture reveals God's command of water baptism in the name of Jesus applies to everyone. (Acts 2:38-41; 8:12-18, 35-40; 9:17-18; 10:43-48; 16:13-15, 28-33; 19:1-7; 22:16) Paul was still preaching its necessity 20+ years after God's command was first revealed at Pentecost. (Acts 19)
Yet non of them say it is required to be saved.

God does nto contradict himself. neither did Paul. And acts did not contradict Jesus or paul
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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Salvation is the work of the Holy Ghost. Water Baptism is the work of man.
Man does nothing more than believe the word and submit themselves to God's command to be water baptized in the name of Jesus for remission of sin. It is God who brings about the reality associated with His command.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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I could not understand how you were not seeing the truth. And then my attention was drawn to the word "let" in your scripture reference. This led me to search which Bible translation added the word. This is a perfect example of how Bible translations can cause people to believe things that oppose the actual word of God. That one word has caused you to believe something that is not true.

Peter's command was in answer to a question posed by those who already believed in Jesus. His answer to them as well as the crowd was, "Repent, AND be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin..."

Repentance is a choice to willingly turn from one's sin and pursue God's righteousness. And belief and submission to God's command of water baptism is also a choice; one that results in having one's sins washed away as revealed in the word.
See your still confused, and still refusing to go and see and still stuck on the english text.

Lets look at the words in the greek .

repent - Metanoesate - to repent - Verb Aorist Active, Imperitive, Second person Plural

Be baptized - Baptistheto - Baptizo - be baptized - Verb, Aorist Passive Imperative, Third Person, Singular

So we see with these two verbs,

1. One is an action we must do. It also is a command given to EVERYONE in the audience to whom peter is speaking
2. The other is an action that is done to you, It is given to only select induviduals. and not a command given to everyone.


The you shall receive the gift of the spirit. - lepsesthe - verb, future, middle, indicative, send person, plural

3. We see, receiving the gift is a verb future, indicative verb that happens to those to whom the verb related. which would be repent (it would not be baptized, because baptized is in a different form)

4. Remission of sin is a singular noun, which is the subject of the singular verb "be baptized) and related only to this.

Since the gift of the spirit is ONLY given to those who have had their sins already forgiven (remission of sin) then remission of sin is the result of repenting. which is required. if one has not repented. they will nto believe. Hence, Wat peter is saying to those who received remission of sin, Get baptize. Not to receive it, for they already had it.

But if you want to continue to trust your flawed text and flawed interpretation. feel free.
 

Beckworth

Active member
May 15, 2019
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1. You must study the word.
2. Lets see what Peter said.

Repent This is written in 2nd person plural. in other words. the command is given to everyone

And let every one of you be baptized - written in 3rd person singular. So this is not only a separate command, but is not even given to the same people

for the remission of sin, This is the object of the command be baptized, in other words. Because you received remission of sin be baptized.

And ye shall recieve the gift of the spirit, again, this goes 2nd person plural. so this is the object of the first commend, repent.

in other words. this can be interpreted as the following

repent and you shall receive the gift of the spirit,. and let every one of you (who repented) be baptized on the fact you have received remission of sin (proven by the fact you have already received the spirit)

and this is proven by the next words.

And they who GLAD:LY RECIEVED (repented) were baptized.. Just Like peter commanded them to be.. Not to be saved, but because they were saved.
This makes no sense. First, second and third person has to do with PRONOUNS. You said Repent is written in second person plural. The only pronoun in t the first part of that sentence is the UNDERSTOOD you. It’s an imperitive sentence and the subject is not stated but understood. (you) Repent. That is definitely
Thank you. Here are a couple of more examples for those with eyes that see:

John 13:20 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send
receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.

Matthew 10:40 He who receives you receives Me, and he who receives Me receives the One who sent.

No amount of proof convinces those whose minds are already made up.
What proof? Did I miss it? I haven’t seen any.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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Man does nothing more than believe the word and submit themselves to God's command to be water baptized in the name of Jesus for remission of sin. It is God who brings about the reality associated with His command.
A man has to still do the work.

It is not something that just happens..