The Error is Baptism in Jesus name only for salvation

What Jesus could do in the flesh was finished at the cross. Without His resurrection none could experience the rebirth.

God is the one who had Peter present the gospel message after making the Holy Ghost available to all, and it is God that brings about what He promised when people humble themselves and believe and obey his message.

God brought down the walls of Jericho when people obeyed Him. Would the same have happened without obedience to His specific instructions? Also, God healed Naaman when He obeyed God's specific instructions given him by Elisha. Would God have healed Naaman if he decided dipping a few times was enough? Or, that one location was just as good as another to dip in 7 times? No, in both cases.

Reverencing God is evidenced through belief and obedience to His instructions not those altered a few hundred years after the fact by those who decided their thoughts on the subject were better. Whether understood or not the instruction's given by God are given with a specific purpose.

I don’t think anyone’s said “ baptism is what saves “ I think this is the idea regarding his name and baptism without adding anything we can see there’s most definately something to it …

By inference they do say that baptism saves.
If one is not baptised in the name of Jesus only then their sins are not remmised which means are not forgiven.
If they are not remmised or forgiveness applied then one is not saved.
None of them have the guts to say it.

Also no tongues = evidence of not being saved, which I have been told in the past.

By inference they do say that baptism saves.
If one is not baptised in the name of Jesus only then their sins are not remmised which means are not forgiven.
If they are not remmised or forgiveness applied then one is not saved.
None of them have the guts to say it.

Also no tongues = evidence of not being saved, which I have been told in the past.

Sure it was. Salvation has always been by grace through faith. That's why Jesus said Abraham rejoiced to see His day, saw it, and was glad. Jesus was speaking before the cross. What was Abraham rejoicing about?

Saved by grace through faith is a true generality but a generality nevertheless. It cannot be used to nullify the absolute need for obedience to the commands of God in reference to salvation or any other issue.

This is the rotten core of faith alone regeneration theology.

And there is no getting around this truth.

Saved by grace through faith is a true generality but a generality nevertheless. It cannot be used to nullify the absolute need for obedience to the commands of God in reference to salvation or any other issue.

This is the rotten core of faith alone regeneration theology.

And there is no getting around this truth.

I'm fine, thank you. How are you?

Correct.

Something else. Did you actually read all of my post?

John 4:10,14; 7:37-39; John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26; 1 Peter 1:23; Titus 3:5 clear up any confusion about John 3:5.

Repentance which results in believing in Jesus Christ for salvation (signified in baptism) speaks volumes Acts 4:4 - However, many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand.

Acts 5:14 - And believers were increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women.

Now go back and read Acts 10:43-47.

Our righteousness is found only in Jesus. (2 Corinthians 5:21) Only He fulfilled all righteousness.

Baptism signified remission of sins for new disciples.

John was a great prophet.

Was this baptism for (in order to obtain) remission of sins? OR was it for (in regard to/on the basis of) remission of sins received upon repentance? In Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water FOR repentance.. If translated "in order to obtain" the verse does not make sense. I baptize you with water FOR (in order to obtain) repentance? or I baptize you with water FOR (in regards to/on the basis of) repentance? Obviously the latter. Repentance precedes water baptism.

Jews first. Now harmonize Acts 2:38 with Acts 10:43-47. You assume that John 3:5 says the same thing as Acts 2:38 based on your bias.

So, what do YOU believe the gospel IS and also what do YOU believe it means to BELIEVE the gospel?

His Word still needs to be properly interpreted.

Are you admitting to being a Oneness Pentecostal? That would explain a lot.

My question is actually: were they saved before He breathed on them?

I'm great Blessed by the best praying for the rest.

What do you think we have to do to be reborn?

Jesus was baptized so that all righteousness should be fulfilled...Matthew 3:15.

I'm great Blessed by the best praying for the rest.

What do you think we have to do to be reborn?

Should be fulfilled?

Matthew 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

Looks like "TO FULFILL ALL RIGHTEOUSNESS"

Saved by grace through faith is a true generality but a generality nevertheless. It cannot be used to nullify the absolute need for obedience to the commands of God in reference to salvation or any other issue.

This is the rotten core of faith alone regeneration theology.

And there is no getting around this truth.

I consider them to be saved like Old Covenant believers were saved. At that time people could draw near to God and He could fill them with the Holy Spirit. Many times the Bible recorded that the Spirit of God would fill or fall upon came upon a believer in YHWH. The NT phenomena was different being more full, complete and intimate.
Jesus explained the disciple's current and future relationship with the Holy Spiritc when He said
17the Spirit of truth. The world cannot receive Him, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him. But you do know Him, for He abides with you and will be in you. (John 14:17)
No human could be "saved" before Christ had come and completed His work on the cross.
Even John the Baptist whom Jesus said "no one born of flesh was greater" was the least in relationship to the Spirit.

Do you agree with the scholars and theologians that believe both Matthew 28:18 and Acts 2:38 are talking about Baptizing in Jesus name?

Because if that's true then why wouldn't those water Baptized in Matthew 28:19 not be baptized correctly if it means in Jesus name?

What did you have to do to be born?