Are there two gospels or ONE?
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Thousands are saved by Jesus.
Thousands are saved under a ministry preaching.
I got saved like paul. Just Jesus showing up. He showed up. I bowed. I worshipped Him. He put a new heart in me. I understood nothing,only that i had a new master.
The Gospel is a person,not a message,not paul,and not a section of a book.
Thousands are saved under a ministry preaching.
I got saved like paul. Just Jesus showing up. He showed up. I bowed. I worshipped Him. He put a new heart in me. I understood nothing,only that i had a new master.
The Gospel is a person,not a message,not paul,and not a section of a book.
I already posted the following quote, but I am assuming this passage would be included (1 Peter 3):
[quoting Gaebelein]
"Pages could be filled with the fanciful and unscriptural interpretations of this passage.
The chief question is: Did our Lord go to Hades in a disembodied state? In fact, all depends on the question of what is the true meaning of the sentence, “quickened by the Spirit.” Now, according to the interpretations of the men who teach that the Lord visited Hades, the spirits in prison, during the interval between His death and the morning of the third day, He descended into these regions while His dead body was still in the grave. Therefore, these teachers claim that His human spirit was quickened, which necessitates that the spirit which the dying Christ commended into the Father’s hands had also died. This is not only incorrect doctrine, but it is an unsound and evil doctrine. Was the holy humanity of our Lord, body, soul and spirit dead? A thousands times No! Only His body died; that is the only part of Him which could die. The text makes this clear: “He was put to death in flesh,” that is, His body. There could be no quickening of His spirit, for His spirit was alive. Furthermore, the word quickening, as we learn from Ephesians 1:20 and Ephesians 2:5-6, by comparing the two passages, applies to His physical resurrection, it is the quickening of His body. To teach that the Lord Jesus was made alive before His resurrection is unscriptural. The “quickened by the Spirit” means the raising up of His body. His human spirit needed no quickening; it was His body and only His body. And the Spirit who did the quickening is not His own spirit, that is, His human spirit, but the Holy Spirit. Romans 8:11 speaks of the Spirit as raising Jesus from among the dead.
We have shown that it was an impossibility that Christ was in any way quickened while His body was not yet raised, hence a visit to Hades is positively excluded between His death and resurrection. There is only another alternative. If it is true that He descended into these regions, then it must have been after His resurrection. But that is equally untenable. The so-called “Apostle’s Creed” puts the descent between His death and resurrection and all the other theorists follow this view. We have shown what the passage does not mean. It cannot mean a visit of the disembodied Christ to Hades, for it speaks of the quickening by the Spirit, and that means His physical resurrection."
--Gaebelein, Commentary on 1 Peter 3, source: Bible Hub
[end quoting; bold mine]
Of course, even the disciples themselves, in the presence of the risen Saviour, had afterward "spread abroad" a saying that Jesus "said not" (in their misunderstanding of Him, at the time).
[quoting Gaebelein]
"Pages could be filled with the fanciful and unscriptural interpretations of this passage.
The chief question is: Did our Lord go to Hades in a disembodied state? In fact, all depends on the question of what is the true meaning of the sentence, “quickened by the Spirit.” Now, according to the interpretations of the men who teach that the Lord visited Hades, the spirits in prison, during the interval between His death and the morning of the third day, He descended into these regions while His dead body was still in the grave. Therefore, these teachers claim that His human spirit was quickened, which necessitates that the spirit which the dying Christ commended into the Father’s hands had also died. This is not only incorrect doctrine, but it is an unsound and evil doctrine. Was the holy humanity of our Lord, body, soul and spirit dead? A thousands times No! Only His body died; that is the only part of Him which could die. The text makes this clear: “He was put to death in flesh,” that is, His body. There could be no quickening of His spirit, for His spirit was alive. Furthermore, the word quickening, as we learn from Ephesians 1:20 and Ephesians 2:5-6, by comparing the two passages, applies to His physical resurrection, it is the quickening of His body. To teach that the Lord Jesus was made alive before His resurrection is unscriptural. The “quickened by the Spirit” means the raising up of His body. His human spirit needed no quickening; it was His body and only His body. And the Spirit who did the quickening is not His own spirit, that is, His human spirit, but the Holy Spirit. Romans 8:11 speaks of the Spirit as raising Jesus from among the dead.
We have shown that it was an impossibility that Christ was in any way quickened while His body was not yet raised, hence a visit to Hades is positively excluded between His death and resurrection. There is only another alternative. If it is true that He descended into these regions, then it must have been after His resurrection. But that is equally untenable. The so-called “Apostle’s Creed” puts the descent between His death and resurrection and all the other theorists follow this view. We have shown what the passage does not mean. It cannot mean a visit of the disembodied Christ to Hades, for it speaks of the quickening by the Spirit, and that means His physical resurrection."
--Gaebelein, Commentary on 1 Peter 3, source: Bible Hub
[end quoting; bold mine]
Of course, even the disciples themselves, in the presence of the risen Saviour, had afterward "spread abroad" a saying that Jesus "said not" (in their misunderstanding of Him, at the time).
Here is Jesus talking about the law. Too many try to change it.
Matthew 5 AMPC
17 Do not think that I have come to do away with or undo the Law or the Prophets; I have come not to do away with or undo but to complete and fulfill them.
18 For truly I tell you, until the sky and earth pass away and perish, not one smallest letter nor one little hook [identifying certain Hebrew letters] will pass from the Law until all things [it foreshadows] are accomplished.
19 Whoever then breaks or does away with or relaxes one of the least [important] of these commandments and teaches men so shall be called least [important] in the kingdom of heaven, but he who practices them and teaches others to do so shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
In addition to the 10 commandments there are the laws scattered through the Torah.
List of the 613 laws in the Torah
http://www.gods-word-first.org/bible-study/613commandments.html
Discussion about the 613 laws in the Torah
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/613_commandments
Matthew 5 AMPC
17 Do not think that I have come to do away with or undo the Law or the Prophets; I have come not to do away with or undo but to complete and fulfill them.
18 For truly I tell you, until the sky and earth pass away and perish, not one smallest letter nor one little hook [identifying certain Hebrew letters] will pass from the Law until all things [it foreshadows] are accomplished.
19 Whoever then breaks or does away with or relaxes one of the least [important] of these commandments and teaches men so shall be called least [important] in the kingdom of heaven, but he who practices them and teaches others to do so shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
In addition to the 10 commandments there are the laws scattered through the Torah.
List of the 613 laws in the Torah
http://www.gods-word-first.org/bible-study/613commandments.html
Discussion about the 613 laws in the Torah
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/613_commandments
First that phrase was not in the earliest version.
Second it was written in Greek so which translation are you talking about?
Here is one translation I defy you to find an error in.
Apostles Creed 1
I believe in God, the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth.
and in Jesus Christ, His only Son, our Lord,
who was conceived by the Holy Ghost,
born of the Virgin Mary,
suffered under Pontius Pilate,
was crucified, died, and buried;
he descended to the dead.
On the third day he rose again;
he ascended into heaven,
he is seated at the right hand of the Father,
and from thence will come to judge the quick and the dead.
I believe in the Holy Ghost,
the holy universal Church,
the communion of saints,
the forgiveness of sins,
the resurrection of the body,
and the life everlasting.
Amen.
Second it was written in Greek so which translation are you talking about?
Here is one translation I defy you to find an error in.
Apostles Creed 1
I believe in God, the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth.
and in Jesus Christ, His only Son, our Lord,
who was conceived by the Holy Ghost,
born of the Virgin Mary,
suffered under Pontius Pilate,
was crucified, died, and buried;
he descended to the dead.
On the third day he rose again;
he ascended into heaven,
he is seated at the right hand of the Father,
and from thence will come to judge the quick and the dead.
I believe in the Holy Ghost,
the holy universal Church,
the communion of saints,
the forgiveness of sins,
the resurrection of the body,
and the life everlasting.
Amen.
The OT ended at JTB.
16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
You have to factor in the priesthood.
The pauline adherants seem to have left out key components.
Way too much assuming.
Pauls conversion even makes them stumble.
How ironic
16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
You have to factor in the priesthood.
The pauline adherants seem to have left out key components.
Way too much assuming.
Pauls conversion even makes them stumble.
How ironic
"The one believing in the Son of God has the testimony in himself; the one not believing God has made Him a liar, because he has not believed in the testimony that God has testified [perfect tense] concerning His Son."
How else were we (nearly 2000 years later) to know anything about His death and resurrection, unless it were passed onto us through eye-witness testimony (of those who were there to witness that He was ALIVE again) including the subsequent recording of it in scripture (1Cor15:1-4); we were not present then and there... that gospel had to be passed onto us.
[Rom1:4 - "by [means of] resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"]
As I understand it, Paul is a "type" of the future 144,000... "as one born out of due time" was Paul
How else were we (nearly 2000 years later) to know anything about His death and resurrection, unless it were passed onto us through eye-witness testimony (of those who were there to witness that He was ALIVE again) including the subsequent recording of it in scripture (1Cor15:1-4); we were not present then and there... that gospel had to be passed onto us.
[Rom1:4 - "by [means of] resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"]
As I understand it, Paul is a "type" of the future 144,000... "as one born out of due time" was Paul
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Kingdom of God, kingdom of heaven. Same thing. different wording. No need to make a distinction when none is there. Just like there is no difference between gospel of peace and gospel of God. ITS ALL THE SAME.
Here is proof KoG and KoH are used interchangeably:
Matthew 19:23-24 King James Version (KJV)
23 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.
24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
A quote from GotQuestions:
"Mark and Luke used “kingdom of God” where Matthew used “kingdom of heaven” frequently in parallel accounts of the same parable Compare Matthew 11:11-12 with Luke 7:28; Matthew 13:11with Mark 4:11 and Luke 8:10; Matthew 13:24 with Mark 4:26; Matthew 13:31 with Mark 4:30 and Luke 13:18; Matthew 13:33 with Luke 13:20; Matthew 18:3 with Mark 10:14 and Luke 18:16; and Matthew 22:2 with Luke 13:29. In each instance, Matthew used the phrase “kingdom of heaven” while Mark and/or Luke used “kingdom of God.” Clearly, the two phrases refer to the same thing. "
Source: https://www.gotquestions.org/kingdom-heaven-God.html
Here is proof KoG and KoH are used interchangeably:
Matthew 19:23-24 King James Version (KJV)
23 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.
24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
A quote from GotQuestions:
"Mark and Luke used “kingdom of God” where Matthew used “kingdom of heaven” frequently in parallel accounts of the same parable Compare Matthew 11:11-12 with Luke 7:28; Matthew 13:11with Mark 4:11 and Luke 8:10; Matthew 13:24 with Mark 4:26; Matthew 13:31 with Mark 4:30 and Luke 13:18; Matthew 13:33 with Luke 13:20; Matthew 18:3 with Mark 10:14 and Luke 18:16; and Matthew 22:2 with Luke 13:29. In each instance, Matthew used the phrase “kingdom of heaven” while Mark and/or Luke used “kingdom of God.” Clearly, the two phrases refer to the same thing. "
Source: https://www.gotquestions.org/kingdom-heaven-God.html
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