Appreciate the detail.
I've seen you write of baptism before, but never got involved, so my apology for the likely repetition and please correct me where I'm wrong.
It looks like you see baptism as mainly water baptism. So Rom6:3 is speaking of water baptism?
Do you see either of these as correct:
NKJ 1 Corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body-- whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free-- and have all been made to drink into one Spirit.
NET 1 Corinthians 12:13 For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body. Whether Jews or Greeks or slaves or free, we were all made to drink of the one Spirit.
If I get literal with the last clause, it can be saying, 'and all [men] were given one Spirit to drink'.
The "by" and the "in" can be very different meanings.
Do you see the miraculous baptisms in Acts as the risen Christ doing the baptizing with the Spirit as JohnB said He would do?
Then, is He no longer doing so?
Yes, I believe Romans 6:3 is water baptism. The imagery is of one being “buried” ( in water) and then “raised” up out of the water to a new life. Verse 4. While in the water, we are “United” with Christ in His death (verse 5) and we are “crucified” with Him in His death ( verse 6). So that our old body of sin is removed or “done away”. We are no longer slaves of sin. Those who have “died with Christ” in baptism have been “ freed from sin” and we shall live with Him. Verse 7. It’s a beautiful picture!!
I had to look up the definitions of “by” and “ in” and I’m not sure if this is right, but what I found was “by” refers to who does the action or how it was performed. So in 1 Cor. 12:13 by the Spirit of God we were All baptized into the body of Christ. This is the same Spirit that Is talked about in Ephesians 4:4 there is one Lord, one faith, one Spirit and one baptism. I don’t mean to get off the subject here but we know the Bible speaks of at least 5 baptisms: 1) John’s Baptism, 2) baptism of fire ( hell), 3) baptism of suffering, 4) Holy Spirit baptism and 5) baptism in the name of Christ. I believe the meaning of “one” in Ephesians 4 is that there is only one that is for salvation. That’s another subject for maybe another time.
So, 1 Cor. 12:13, “In” the Spirit, my source said that “in” means “What was used to perform the action.” Or the position or “place” of it. I really don’t see much difference; I think it safe to say, the Holy Spirit is the one putting us into the body of Christ when we are baptized. That is the purpose of the action of baptism—to put us into the body of Christ. Verse 27, he says “YOU are the body of Christ, but members individually. The Spirit is the one who performs the action of actually putting us into Christ’s body. However, that happens, spiritually, it is done by the power of the Holy Spirit. . It reminds me of how the Spirit of God was involved in the creation of the world—the Spirit of God moved on the face of the waters.” Gen. 1:2
It’s hard for me to differentiate the Godhead when it comes to miraculous baptism. Yes, it probably is as you say,
Christ and the Spirit, but they all work together as “one” so much that it’s hard to give a definite answer.
As to your last question: Let me start out by reminding us that in the 1st century when these events in the Bible were happening, there was no written Bible. We have a new religious movement, whose leader and founder Jesus Christ has been killed, and no one knows what they are suppose to do, how to act, or even what to think. Jesus had to leave, but He left them the apostles and the Holy spirit called “the helper” to guide them. The apostles, who God filled with His Holy Spirit (Acts 2), began getting revelations from God via the Spirit and began writing these things down in “letters” to the churches; again GUIDED by the Spirit. The letters were circulated among the different congregations (Col. 4:16) to be read by all. It was some time before they had all of God’s revelation compiled into one book, the Bible. Until that time, they had to rely on spiritual gifts of prophecy, revelation, interpretation of tongues, healing, knowledge, etc. these “gifts” were important to the early church in order for them to function. But 1 Corinthians 13 tells us that they are only going to be temporary. When the “perfect” will of God, the Bible, is completed, there will no longer be any need for spiritual gifts. See 1 Corinthians. 13:8, Romans 12:2, and James 1:25. Since the Holy Spirit could not be “passed on” from person to person, when the last apostle died, and when the last person that had the gift of the Spirit died, then spiritual gifts ceased.
Miraculous baptism was used as a “Sign” that God approved. In Acts 2, it was a sign to the Jews at Pentecost that these men were from God and their message was from God. Notice what happened.The apostle began speaking in tongues and it got the attention of all the Jews. Read verses 6-12 of Acts 2. The Holy Spirit baptism was not used to SAVE anyone. It was used as a “sign” to get their attention and to prove they were from God.
Now go to Acts 10. The first time the Spirit was given to the Jews. Now, it is given to the gentiles—to prove to the Jews that God was including gentiles as recipients of the gospel. The Jews had always been God’s chosen people and gentiles had been hated by them. It took something shocking to convince them that it wasn’t going to be this way anymore. Read verses 44-46. When the H. S. fell on the gentiles, the Jews were amazed! The Holy Spirit baptism was accompanied by the speaking in tongues just like in Acts 2. The Jews who were not there at that time “contended” with Peter because he had gone into a gentile home. But when Peter told them about the gentiles receiving the baptism of the Spirit, the other Jews said, “Then God has also granted to the gentiles repentance to life.” The miraculous baptism of the Spirit on the gentiles was a “sign” to the doubtful Jews of the gentiles acceptance by God. Please notice that No where in the scriptures in either Acts 2 or Acts 10 does it ever imply in any way that miraculous baptism of the Holy Spirit saved anyone. The purpose of this baptism was not for salvation. After Cornelius and his house received the Holy Spirit, they were then COMMANDED by Peter to be”water” baptized. Verse 48. This causes me to believe that baptism in the name of Jesus is the “one “ baptism that removes our sins as Peter said in Acts 2 and is the “ one” baptism talked about in Ephesians 4:4.
Bear with me while I make one other point: Going back to Acts 8, those people in Samaria, who had believed and been baptized in verse 12, were saved when they BELIEVED and were BAPTIZED according to what Jesus says in Mark 16:16, but they did not receive the Holy Spirut until Peter and John came from Jerusalem and laid their hands on them. Verses 15-17). So there is no indication that the Holy Spirit was given to “save” anyone. It was given to impart spiritual gifts to be used by the early Christians.
I realize you may not be in agreement with me on this. That’s alright. I appreciate you reading this lengthy post and allowing me the opportunity to share what I believe the Bible teaches.
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