Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

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In their struggle to find a New Testament scripture that supports their misconception that God's law is "done away," antinomians point to Colossians 2:14 to "prove" that Christ nailed the law of God to the cross. Proponents of such a teaching say that the "handwriting of requirements [ordinances, KJV]" refers to the law "that was against us." They further claim that Christ "took it out of the way" or abolished the law.
The phrase "handwriting of requirements" is translated from the Greek phrase cheirographon tois dogmasin. Cheirographon means anything written by hand, but can more specifically apply to a legal document, bond, or note of debt. Dogmasin refers to decrees, laws, or ordinances, and in this context means a body of beliefs or practices that have become the guidelines governing a person's conduct or way of life.
What Paul is saying is that, by His death, Christ has justified us—brought us into alignment with His Law—and wiped out the note of guilt or debt that we owed as a result of our sins. Before repentance, our lives had been governed by the standards and values of this present, evil world—the "decrees, laws and ordinances" of the society in which we lived. After repentance and acceptance of Christ, we embark on a new way of life and live by God's standards and values. Consequently, God wipes out the debt we acquired as a result of our sins and imputes righteousness to us.
Also notice that the phrase "handwriting of requirements" restates the phrase immediately before it. "Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us" parallels "having forgiven you all trespasses." Thus, Paul could not be referring to the law itself but rather to the record of our transgression of that law—sin!
The last sentence in verse 14 reads: "And He has taken it out of the way..." In this sentence, the word "it" is a singular pronoun and refers back to the singular word "handwriting." "Requirements" could not be its antecedent because "requirements" is plural. So, some kind of handwriting—a note, a record, or a citation—was affixed to the cross.
Historically, only two objects were nailed to the stake of crucifixion: 1) the condemned person and 2) an inscription naming the crimes for which he was being punished. Thus, when Jesus was crucified, only His body and Pilate's inscription ("This is Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews"; see Matthew 27:37; Mark 15:26; Luke 23:38; John 19:19) were nailed to the cross. Normally, the inscription would be more accusative, saying something like, "This is Jesus of Nazareth, who rebelled against Caesar." Pilate's complimentary inscription replaced the customary note or record of guilt—the "handwriting of requirements" that would have been found nailed to the crosses of the two malefactors crucified with Him.
Just before He died, when the Father forsook Him (Matthew 27:46), our sins were symbolically nailed to the cross in His body. "Who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, having died to sins, might live for righteousness—by whose stripes you were healed" (I Peter 2:24). At the time of His crucifixion, Jesus Christ became sin for us. "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him" (II Corinthians 5:21). Our note of debt that we owed God as a result of our sins is what was "taken out of the way" and "nailed . . . to the cross."
— Earl L. Henn​
Colossians 2:12 is not to be “isolated”from its context. After verse 14, he continues the thought in verse 16 and he says”SO”, meaning therefore, or as a result of, or because of what he’s just said about taking away the. Handwringing of ordinances, “Let no one judge you in food or drink ( those Old testament “ordinances” of clean and unclean foods; priests were forbidden to drink wine), or regarding a festival, or new moon, or sabbaths. He is definitely talking about the Old Jewish laws in the Old Testament. So the meaning of verse 12 is defined by the context in which it was written.
 
Colossians 2:12 is not to be “isolated”from its context. After verse 14, he continues the thought in verse 16 and he says”SO”, meaning therefore, or as a result of, or because of what he’s just said about taking away the. Handwringing of ordinances, “Let no one judge you in food or drink ( those Old testament “ordinances” of clean and unclean foods; priests were forbidden to drink wine), or regarding a festival, or new moon, or sabbaths. He is definitely talking about the Old Jewish laws in the Old Testament. So the meaning of verse 12 is defined by the context in which it was written.

Could you give me verses were priests didn’t drink wine?
 
Do not drink wine nor strong drink, thou, nor thy sons with thee, when ye go into the tabernacle of the congregation, lest ye die: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations: Leviticus 10:9

Yes, found it too. Thank you.
So only while they were performing their duties/ during their shifts. Otherwise, it was common to do so.
 
I always find these conversations fascinating and try really hard to stay out of them.

But lets think this out...

God says to Moses and the Israelites that this is my law and commandments. I know you can't do them but I want you to try anyway. In about 1500 years (+ or -), I'm gonna send my Son to die and do away with all that. Meanwhile, keep trying until then. Yeah, I'm gonna judge you every time you fail, but it will be good for you.

Like I say though, I'll send my Son, he'll die and do away with all that law keeping, and sacrifices, and holidays, and all that. I'll let the Romans burn the temple down and kick you guys outta the land.

But that's good too. You can start going to church and quit being Jewish and such. You'll like grape juice and crackers I promise and I'll change the Sabbath to Sunday!

Yeah, .. 🤦🤔

Just yeah...
 
Could you give me verses were priests didn’t drink wine?

It’s not that they could never drink any wine, it’s just that they had laws ( ordinances) about when they were not allowed to drink wine.

I did not do a thorough search but in at least two places they were forbidden to drink wine. 1) in Leviticus 10:9, The Priests and his sons were not allowed to drink wine when they went into the tabernacle, “ lest you die.” And 2) also in Ezekiel 44:21, They were forbidden to drink wine when they entered the “inner court” of the sanctuary. It seems like there were a few more but I just read these two.
 
I always find these conversations fascinating and try really hard to stay out of them.

But lets think this out...

God says to Moses and the Israelites that this is my law and commandments. I know you can't do them but I want you to try anyway. In about 1500 years (+ or -), I'm gonna send my Son to die and do away with all that. Meanwhile, keep trying until then. Yeah, I'm gonna judge you every time you fail, but it will be good for you.

Like I say though, I'll send my Son, he'll die and do away with all that law keeping, and sacrifices, and holidays, and all that. I'll let the Romans burn the temple down and kick you guys outta the land.

But that's good too. You can start going to church and quit being Jewish and such. You'll like grape juice and crackers I promise and I'll change the Sabbath to Sunday!

Yeah, .. 🤦🤔

Just yeah...

Fruit of the vine (wine, or 100% grape juice w/ no additives) and unleavened bread (no leaven/ yeast/ salt), like the Passover.
 
Fruit of the vine (wine, or 100% grape juice w/ no additives) and unleavened bread (no leaven/ yeast/ salt), like the Passover.


Actually there is a passage in Leviticus 2:13 that says they were to serve their grain offerings ( unleavened bread, verse 4) with salt. I’ve always thought salt was allowed in unleavened bread, but have not studied this thoroughly so I could be wrong. Anyone know for sure?
 
It’s not that they could never drink any wine, it’s just that they had laws ( ordinances) about when they were not allowed to drink wine.

I did not do a thorough search but in at least two places they were forbidden to drink wine. 1) in Leviticus 10:9, The Priests and his sons were not allowed to drink wine when they went into the tabernacle, “ lest you die.” And 2) also in Ezekiel 44:21, They were forbidden to drink wine when they entered the “inner court” of the sanctuary. It seems like there were a few more but I just read these two.

Yes, I wrote that above— only during their duty time. Thank you.

It seems like there is such a prohibition today with many groups….. I believe that people are not reading the Scriptures properly on this subject. What do you think?
 
Actually there is a passage in Leviticus 2:13 that says they were to serve their grain offerings ( unleavened bread, verse 4) with salt. I’ve always thought salt was allowed in unleavened bread, but have not studied this thoroughly so I could be wrong. Anyone know for sure?

Well I thought so too until I saw something written about it a few decades ago. Lol
I couldn’t tell you were online I found this, but from then on I kept it out of the unleavened bread that I make for communion. I read were salt is a slight leavening agent (idk how true this is, but I keep it out all the same).
 
Well I thought so too until I saw something written about it a few decades ago. Lol
I couldn’t tell you were online I found this, but from then on I kept it out of the unleavened bread that I make for communion. I read were salt is a slight leavening agent (idk how true this is, but I keep it out all the same).

You are right; salt can be used for leavening. I like being safe rather than sorry.
 
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