It's ok quasar, fix your computer problems and then get back to me. Now, since Jesus Christ is the "Son of God/God the Son" even according to you then there was never a time when He did not exist. Since this is true then logic dictates He had to have existed before His incarnation. In other words, He existed as God Almighty. In the New Testament is when He incarnated as a fully contingent human being. He was not a fully contingent human being in the Old Testament.
And "contingent" means He was dependent on God His Father like the rest of us depend on God. As well I have already gone over John 1:1 which proves He was "WITH" God even before the beginning of time in eternity like Micah 5:2 states. And one more thing (getting back to John 1?) please look at vs15, "John bore witness of Him, and cried out saying, "This was He of whom I said, "He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, FOR (or because) HE EXISTED BEFORE ME."
So on what basis or how did John the Baptist know Jesus Christ literally existed before him? Who told him or where did he get his information?

And btw, what were discussing has nothing to do with you quoting Revelation 19:11, Proverbs 8, or Colossians 1:15 etc. Were past that and in one of my other post to you I already addressed those verses.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto