I was using a text that someone else quoted and asked him why he didn't understand the verse to be referring to a time it was referring to?
Here's a very brief take on how I see it (and have put in past posts).
Dan9:[24],25-27 is written SEQUENTIALLY.
So, here's how that sequence goes (bearing in mind that this time-prophecy concerns "THY [Daniel's] people" and "THY [Daniel's] holy city"):
--v.25 a specified time period "FROM... UNTO the Messiah the Prince" (concluded on the very day that Jesus RODE into Jerusalem on the animal [Zech9:9] and SAID what He did [Lk19:41-44; also SAID in Matt22:7 and three or so verses in His Olivet Discourse, plus SAID in Lk21:12-24a,b]--BOTH of these passages in bold [and the related ones] having to do with "the city [/ Jerusalem]"--This ["rode" and "said"] occurred on what we call "Palm Sunday"... the very day, according to Ex12:3,5,6, they would SELECT a LAMB and examine it for 4 days... so this is shortly before He is put to death later that very same week);
--v.26a "shall he be CUT OFF and have nothing [or as some versions have it, 'but not for himself']"--His rejection (trials) and His death on the CROSS (see also Jer11:19 ["CUT him OFF"--"like a lamb to the slaughter"] and the posts I've made regarding this);
--[THEN, after that] v.26b "the people OF [the prince THAT SHALL come]" shall destroy the city and the sanctuary" (the things Jesus "SAID" would happen--re: the events surrounding 70ad)... and "desolaTIONS [plural] are determined" (this part is what continues on... "desolationS [plural]"... similar to Lk21:24b,c);
--v.27a "he" links back to v.26b's "the prince THAT SHALL COME" (these capitalized words are unnecessary and superfluous IF this is referring back to the same person in v.25; just saying "the prince" [already referenced] suffices... but this is showing a DISTINCTION, by adding this phrase "[the prince] THAT SHALL COME [/COMING]"<--this also connects 1Jn's saying, "YE HAVE HEARD [commonly used to refer back to OT things] that antichrist IS COMING"); The first item in v.27a speaks of confirming a covenant "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" (that's not what Jesus did);
Well... I had much more... but I did say I would try to make this BRIEF ( )... so I won't go into the CONNECTIONS I see between Dan9:27a,b,c (which spans a "7 year period") and what Paul says with regard to "the man of sin" in 2Th2 which CONNECTS to each of those [3] points in Dan9:27 [time-wise / sequence-wise]... I have that info in many past posts.
Hope that helps you see my perspective on this Subject... (was trying not to make this post be too cumbersome... =] )
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