Did Judas ever have the Holy Spirit?

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JesusMyOnly

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2014
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I always thought (or I was taught) that Judas did not have the Holy Spirit (that he wasn't indwelt by the Spirit). However in Matthew chapter ten it seems he did.. (?)


Matthew 10:1 ~ And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease. (Well in 1 Cor. chapter 12 those things the disciples were given the power to do so are gifts of the Spirit).


I've heard some say yes, and he blasphemed the Spirit when he went against Christ. I've heard some say he didn't have the Spirit indwelling him. And some say in Matthew 10 that they were not indwelt by the Spirit at that time but only anointed. Just curious on your views??
 
He rejected the Holy Ghost for flesh, .... he took the silver only to hang himself, smh.... A confused heart that made a serious choice..
 
He rejected the Holy Ghost for flesh, .... he took the silver only to hang himself, smh.... A confused heart that made a serious choice..
:(That is very sad yes, and I do see that he rejected the Holy Spirit. I am wondering if you thought he was ever indwelt by the Spirit.
 
:(That is very sad yes, and I do see that he rejected the Holy Spirit. I am wondering if you thought he was ever indwelt by the Spirit.
.. Nuts, how one can see what judas seen with his very own eyes but as for rejecting the Holy Ghost, interesting topic now that I think on it, Holy Ghost didn't come till Pentecost, but he rejected Christ, and betrayed Him. So I recant a bit...
 
John 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
 
Jesus delegated this divine power of healing to others who were closely associated with him in his ministry. When the 12 apostles were sent out, and later the 70 disciples, they were empowered to cure the sick. (Mt 10:5, 8; Lu 10:1, 8, 9)
That being the case, Judas too would need holy spirit for that assignment.
 
No Judas did not gain permanence with the Holy Ghost (still OT time in witch it motivated certain individuals as need be but not permanent)

(Ps 51:11 Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.)

Joh 7:39 (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.) (still under OT )

Ac 1:4 And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me. acts 2 v 4... 120 converted later 3000..SAME WAY !.....including Mary mother of Jesus....the church begins..........
 
John 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
Amen! John 7:38 - He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. 39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.
 
I always thought (or I was taught) that Judas did not have the Holy Spirit (that he wasn't indwelt by the Spirit). However in Matthew chapter ten it seems he did.. (?)


Matthew 10:1 ~ And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease. (Well in 1 Cor. chapter 12 those things the disciples were given the power to do so are gifts of the Spirit).


I've heard some say yes, and he blasphemed the Spirit when he went against Christ. I've heard some say he didn't have the Spirit indwelling him. And some say in Matthew 10 that they were not indwelt by the Spirit at that time but only anointed. Just curious on your views??
The Holy Spirit did not indwell anyone except John the Baptist prior to Pentacost after Jesus' resurrection. He worked with the disciples, but not within them. No, Judas never had the Holy Spirit, and obviously was not saved.
 
The Holy Spirit did not indwell anyone except John the Baptist prior to Pentacost after Jesus' resurrection.
There were MANY people in the Old Testament who were indwelt by the Spirit of God. If you'd like me to, then I'll provide you with at least a partial list of the same.
 
I always thought (or I was taught) that Judas did not have the Holy Spirit (that he wasn't indwelt by the Spirit). However in Matthew chapter ten it seems he did.. (?)


Matthew 10:1 ~ And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease. (Well in 1 Cor. chapter 12 those things the disciples were given the power to do so are gifts of the Spirit).


I've heard some say yes, and he blasphemed the Spirit when he went against Christ. I've heard some say he didn't have the Spirit indwelling him. And some say in Matthew 10 that they were not indwelt by the Spirit at that time but only anointed. Just curious on your views??

The disciples didn't have the Holy spirit until the old covenant has been fulfilled, and then the spirit has been given to them; but Jesus was with them.
 
I always thought (or I was taught) that Judas did not have the Holy Spirit (that he wasn't indwelt by the Spirit). However in Matthew chapter ten it seems he did.. (?)


Matthew 10:1 ~ And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease. (Well in 1 Cor. chapter 12 those things the disciples were given the power to do so are gifts of the Spirit).


I've heard some say yes, and he blasphemed the Spirit when he went against Christ. I've heard some say he didn't have the Spirit indwelling him. And some say in Matthew 10 that they were not indwelt by the Spirit at that time but only anointed. Just curious on your views??
Hi, JesusMyOnly.

Although I cannot give you a definitive answer to your question, I will offer the following for your prayerful consideration:

"And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease." (Matthew 10:1)

"And he called unto him the twelve, and began to send them forth by two and two; and gave them power over unclean spirits;" (Mark 6:7)

"Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases." (Luke 9:1)

Both Matthew and Mark used the underlying Greek word "exousia"...

Greek Lexicon :: G1849 (KJV)

...to describe the type of "power" which Jesus gave His twelve disciples and it could be better translated as "authority". In fact, in Luke's account where he mentions that Jesus gave His twelve disciples BOTH "power AND authority", the same underlying Greek word "exousia" is translated as "authority". Yes, the underlying Greek word which is translated as "power" in Luke's account is a totally different Greek word, "dynamis"...

Greek Lexicon :: G1411 (KJV)

...and it's the same underlying Greek word that this same Luke used in the book of Acts to describe the following:

"But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth." (Acts 1:8)

Here, this "power" or "dynamis" is clearly related to "the Holy Ghost coming upon them", so it is possible that the twelve disciples were given BOTH "power" or delegated authority through Jesus' Name AND "power' or Holy Ghost "dynamis" (from which we derive our English word "dynamite").

Anyhow, like I said, that's just for your own prayerful consideration, but it does seem possible/plausible that they were at least outwardly anointed with the Holy Ghost during the early part of their ministry.
 
I have always believed that the Holy Spirit only came "upon" certain individuals for a specific function in the OT, (such as David to perform his kingship and even the disciples to do and heal the sick) but after the death of Christ He came to "indwell" ALL who received the testimony of Jesus and His work on the cross.
 
I have always believed that the Holy Spirit only came "upon" certain individuals for a specific function in the OT, (such as David to perform his kingship and even the disciples to do and heal the sick) but after the death of Christ He came to "indwell" ALL who received the testimony of Jesus and His work on the cross.
Hi, Joidevivre.

What you just described is a very popular belief, but it simply isn't true. Many people in the Old Testament were indwelt by the Spirit of God and I'll just cite a few examples (this is not an exhaustive list by any means) of the same:

Joseph had the Spirit of God in him

"And Pharaoh said unto his servants, Can we find such a one as this is, a man in whom the Spirit of God is?" (Genesis 41:38)

Moses had the Spirit of God in him

"Then he remembered the days of old, Moses, and his people, saying, Where is he that brought them up out of the sea with the shepherd of his flock? where is he that put his holy Spirit within him?" (Isaiah 63:11)

Joshua had the Spirit of God in him

"And the LORD said unto Moses, Take thee Joshua the son of Nun, a man in whom is the spirit, and lay thine hand upon him;" (Numbers 27:18)

Again:

"And Joshua the son of Nun was full of the spirit of wisdom; for Moses had laid his hands upon him: and the children of Israel hearkened unto him, and did as the LORD commanded Moses." (Deuteronomy 34:9)

Daniel had the Spirit of God in him

"But at the last Daniel came in before me, whose name was Belteshazzar, according to the name of my god, and in whom is the spirit of the holy gods: and before him I told the dream, saying, O Belteshazzar, master of the magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy gods is in thee, and no secret troubleth thee, tell me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and the interpretation thereof." (Daniel 4:8-9)

Ezekiel had the Spirit of God in him

"And the spirit entered into me when he spake unto me, and set me upon my feet, that I heard him that spake unto me." (Ezekiel 2:2)

Again:

"Then the spirit entered into me, and set me upon my feet, and spake with me, and said unto me, Go, shut thyself within thine house." (Ezekiel 3:24)

All of the Old Testament prophets had the Spirit of God in them

"Of which salvation the prophets have inquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." (I Peter 1:10-11)

Like I said, that's NOT an exhaustive list, but it should suffice to show that people in the Old Testament times did indeed have the Spirit of God in them.
 
i think if you look into "union with Yahweh", living in "union with Yahshua" may help gain understanding today.

so few live in union with Yahweh, in union in and with Yahshua, that there's no good example to point you to to see how they live,

but there's many examples in the NT.
 
Hi, Joidevivre.

What you just described is a very popular belief, but it simply isn't true. Many people in the Old Testament were indwelt by the Spirit of God and I'll just cite a few examples (this is not an exhaustive list by any means) of the same:

Joseph had the Spirit of God in him

"And Pharaoh said unto his servants, Can we find such a one as this is, a man in whom the Spirit of God is?" (Genesis 41:38)

Moses had the Spirit of God in him

"Then he remembered the days of old, Moses, and his people, saying, Where is he that brought them up out of the sea with the shepherd of his flock? where is he that put his holy Spirit within him?" (Isaiah 63:11)

Joshua had the Spirit of God in him

"And the LORD said unto Moses, Take thee Joshua the son of Nun, a man in whom is the spirit, and lay thine hand upon him;" (Numbers 27:18)

Again:

"And Joshua the son of Nun was full of the spirit of wisdom; for Moses had laid his hands upon him: and the children of Israel hearkened unto him, and did as the LORD commanded Moses." (Deuteronomy 34:9)

Daniel had the Spirit of God in him

"But at the last Daniel came in before me, whose name was Belteshazzar, according to the name of my god, and in whom is the spirit of the holy gods: and before him I told the dream, saying, O Belteshazzar, master of the magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy gods is in thee, and no secret troubleth thee, tell me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and the interpretation thereof." (Daniel 4:8-9)

Ezekiel had the Spirit of God in him

"And the spirit entered into me when he spake unto me, and set me upon my feet, that I heard him that spake unto me." (Ezekiel 2:2)

Again:

"Then the spirit entered into me, and set me upon my feet, and spake with me, and said unto me, Go, shut thyself within thine house." (Ezekiel 3:24)

All of the Old Testament prophets had the Spirit of God in them

"Of which salvation the prophets have inquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." (I Peter 1:10-11)

Like I said, that's NOT an exhaustive list, but it should suffice to show that people in the Old Testament times did indeed have the Spirit of God in them.

Yes, they all had the spirit of God with them, but it was taking away.

Psalm 51:11 Do not cast me from your presence or take your Holy Spirit from me.

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
(which means “God with us”).
 
Then what was the difference at Pentacost?
Hi, again, Joidevivre.

Whatever the difference was (if there was a difference...and I'll explain that comment in a minute), we're still confronted with the fact that Old Testament saints had the Spirit of God in them, so let's not let that truth slip away from us. As far as Pentecost itself is concerned, like the other Springtime Feasts, its origins are found way back in the Old Testament:

Leviticus chapter 23

[1] And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
[2] Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, Concerning the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, even these are my feasts.
[3] Six days shall work be done: but the seventh day is the sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work therein: it is the sabbath of the LORD in all your dwellings.
[4] These are the feasts of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their seasons.
[5] In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover.
[6] And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
[7] In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.
[8] But ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days: in the seventh day is an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.
[9] And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
[10] Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, When ye be come into the land which I give unto you, and shall reap the harvest thereof, then ye shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest unto the priest:
[11] And he shall wave the sheaf before the LORD, to be accepted for you: on the morrow after the sabbath the priest shall wave it.
[12] And ye shall offer that day when ye wave the sheaf an he lamb without blemish of the first year for a burnt offering unto the LORD.
[13] And the meat offering thereof shall be two tenth deals of fine flour mingled with oil, an offering made by fire unto the LORD for a sweet savour: and the drink offering thereof shall be of wine, the fourth part of an hin.
[14] And ye shall eat neither bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an offering unto your God: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.
[15] And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven sabbaths shall be complete:
[16] Even unto the morrow after the seventh sabbath shall ye number fifty days; and ye shall offer a new meat offering unto the LORD.
[17] Ye shall bring out of your habitations two wave loaves of two tenth deals: they shall be of fine flour; they shall be baken with leaven; they are the firstfruits unto the LORD.
[18] And ye shall offer with the bread seven lambs without blemish of the first year, and one young bullock, and two rams: they shall be for a burnt offering unto the LORD, with their meat offering, and their drink offerings, even an offering made by fire, of sweet savour unto the LORD.
[19] Then ye shall sacrifice one kid of the goats for a sin offering, and two lambs of the first year for a sacrifice of peace offerings.
[20] And the priest shall wave them with the bread of the firstfruits for a wave offering before the LORD, with the two lambs: they shall be holy to the LORD for the priest.
[21] And ye shall proclaim on the selfsame day, that it may be an holy convocation unto you: ye shall do no servile work therein: it shall be a statute for ever in all your dwellings throughout your generations.
[22] And when ye reap the harvest of your land, thou shalt not make clean riddance of the corners of thy field when thou reapest, neither shalt thou gather any gleaning of thy harvest: thou shalt leave them unto the poor, and to the stranger: I am the LORD your God.


In what I just cited, God gave Moses instruction concerning the four Springtime Feasts or "rehearsals":

1. Passover (vs. 5)
2. Unleavened Bread (vss. 6-8)
3. Firstfruits (vss. 9-14)
4. Pentecost or the Feast of weeks (vss. 15-22)

At His first coming, Jesus fulfilled all of these Springtime Feasts on their literal calendar days.

Jesus was crucified on the Feast of Passover, as the gospel accounts attest to, and having partaken of Christ as our True Passover Lamb we ought to be removing all "leaven" from our lives or anything which might cause us to "rise up" or to be "puffed up" against God. In relation to the same, we read:

I Corinthians chapter 5

[6] Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
[7] Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
[8] Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.


Similarly, Christ rose from the dead on the Feast of Firstfruits and for this very purpose, in the midst of his discourse on the resurrection from the dead, Paul twice referred to Christ as "the firstfruits" in this same epistle to the Corinthians:

I Corinthians chapter 15

[20] But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
[21] For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.
[22] For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
[23] But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.


The fourth Springtime Feast, the Feast of Pentecost or the Feast of weeks, occurred exactly 50 days after the Feast of Firstfruits. With this in mind, we read:

Acts chapter 1

[1] The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do and teach,
[2] Until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen:
[3] To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:
[4] And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me.
[5] For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.


"After His passion" or after He was crucified, buried AND RAISED FROM THE DEAD, Jesus "shewed himself alive...by many infallible proofs, BEING SEEN OF THEM FORTY DAYS". This "FORTY DAYS" is significant because, again, the Feast of Pentecost occurs precisely 50 days after the Feast of Firstfruits or precisely 50 days after the day in which Christ was raised from the dead and became "THE FIRSTFRUITS of them which slept". With this in mind, Christ knew that there had to be 10 more days before the Feast of Pentecost could be fulfilled on its literal calendar day, so He instructed His disciples to "not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father" or the Holy Ghost baptism which He said would come "NOT MANY DAYS HENCE". Believe me, Jesus knew EXACTLY how many "NOT MANY DAYS HENCE" that it would be. IOW, He knew that it would be 10 more days until the Feast of Pentecost could be fulfilled on its literal calendar day. In relation to the same, we read:

Acts chapter 2

1] And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
[2] And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
[3] And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
[4] And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.


"And when the day of Pentecost was fully come..."

Again, Christ knew that each of these four Springtime Feasts had to find their fulfillment on their literal calendar days, BUT THIS DOES NOT MEAN THAT THEY NEVER HAD ANY FULFILLMENT PRIOR TO THIS. What do I mean by that? Well, I mean this...

Consider the Feast of Passover, for example. Although it wasn't fulfilled until nearly two thousand years ago, this does not mean that nobody benefitted from the same prior to that time. IOW, Old Testament saints who saw the Feast of Passover as a "type" or "shadow" of what Christ would ultimately accomplish on the cross and who placed their faith in the same reaped the benefit of salvation from the same. Similarly, Old Testament saints who saw the Feast of Firstfruits as a "type" or "shadow" of Christ's resurrection from the dead similarly benefitted from the same. IOW, we, as New Testament Christians, LOOK BACK to the cross and the empty tomb whereas Old Testament saints LOOKED FORWARD to the same, but we both reap the same benefits. If such is indeed the case, then why couldn't any Old Testament saints similarly have reaped some benefits in relation to the Feast of Pentecost BEFORE its ultimate fulfillment nearly two thousand years ago?

Anyhow, just something for you to hopefully prayerfully ponder.
 
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