I assume these verses are to what you're referring.
2 Corinthians 11:3-4
3 But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted
from the simplicity that is in Christ.
4 For if he that cometh preacheth
another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive
another spirit, which ye have not received, or
another gospel,
which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him.
So, how does this apply in this conversation?
If we say that every person who reads those passages, be they Mormons, Jehovah's Witnesses, Protestants, can apply them as a justification for standing firmly on what they THINK is THE Gospel that applies to us today, we need not evangelize them, so applying that, even in a round-about way, to this conversation, it begs the question.
So, I agree with you about establishing a foundation upon which we can proceed.
These three verses say much:
Galatians 2:7-9
7 But contrariwise, when
they [the twelve] saw that the
gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as
the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
8 For he that
wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision (Israel),
the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:
9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be
pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas
the right hands of fellowship [not permission or commission as so many seem to assume into the text]; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
So that you know I'm not making this up, Thayer's Greek Lexicon defines the Greek word translated as "fellowship" in verse 9 means:
"the right hand as
the sign and pledge of fellowship (in fulfilling the apostolic office),
Galatians 2:9"
Some have tried to tell me that the twelve "commissioned" or "empowered" Paul for his role as the apostle to the Gentiles, as if Paul needed their blessing to proceed and was thus under their authority; regardless of the fact that Paul had been trained up and sent forth by Christ already. Paul chose to counsel with them, yes, and they extended to him fellowship with them as a fellow apostle. Now, I'm not saying you're of that strange stripe of the nay-sayers, but there are those around who are displaying those spots with pride, contrary to the text.
Additionally, the differentiation of the Gospels is made clear in verse 7. Had they actually been one and the same gospel, then the division would make no sense, and the language used would make no sense. Paul could easily have said:
"7 But contrariwise, when
they [the twelve] saw that the
gospel committed unto me for the uncircumcision, as
the it was to Peter unto the circumcision;
or
7 But contrariwise, when
they [the twelve] saw that the
ministry of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as
the ministry of the circumcision was unto Peter;
Two different ministries when replacing "gospel" with "ministry," ...two different gospels by that same consistency with the grammar.
But the Lord chose to insert reference to the gospels, and grammatically that phraseology points clearly to two different gospels. That's not to say there are also two Christs, for there is not but One, over all.
So, in relation to my first altered phraseology, THAT would be a viable argument for a singular gospel from the grammar, but that is not at all the grammar the Lord chose to express what he inspired Paul to write. Why make the distinction along the lines of Israel and Gentiles, for Peter had already preached to a small hand full of Gentiles and brought them into the fold of Jews, yes, but he did not at all teach them to forsake the Law nor did he command them to not circumcize their children as did Paul to the Jews to whom he ministered who had not yet been under the ministry of the twelve.
Thoughts?
MM