Discrepancy between Esther 4:16 and 5:1?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
R

rstrats

Senior Member
#1
Aug 28, 2011
745
43
28
#1
Esther said that she would fast for 3 days, night or day, and that after doing that, that she would go to the king. However, verse 5:1 says that she went to the king on the 3rd day. How can she go to the king on the 3rd day and at the same time go after the 3rd day?
 
B

Bruce_Leiter

Active member
#2
Feb 17, 2023
427
193
43
#2
In Jewish reckoning, parts of a day are thought of as a whole day, but why do you want to split hairs? She went there on part of the third day, a little early but within the Jewish thinking.
 
R

rstrats

Senior Member
#3
Aug 28, 2011
745
43
28
#3
Bruce_Leiter said:
In Jewish reckoning, parts of a day are thought of as a whole day, but why do you want to split hairs? She went there on part of the third day, a little early but within the Jewish thinking.
Click to expand...
So your saying that when Esther said night and day, that she wasn't saying that at least a part of each one of 3 daytimes and at least a part of each one of 3 night times would be involved?
 
Nehemiah6

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
#4
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
113
#4
rstrats said:
Esther said that she would fast for 3 days, night or day, and that after doing that, that she would go to the king. However, verse 5:1 says that she went to the king on the 3rd day. How can she go to the king on the 3rd day and at the same time go after the 3rd day?
Click to expand...
The Hebrew day begins and ends at sunset on one and the same day. So if she fasted until sunset on that day, and then went to the king after a couple of hours, it would be "the next day" for her, but the same day for us. Our reckoning of time is from midnight to midnight.
 
R

rstrats

Senior Member
#5
Aug 28, 2011
745
43
28
#5
[QUOTE="Nehemiah6, .[/QUOTE]

re: "The Hebrew day begins and ends at sunset on one and the same day. So if she fasted until sunset on that day, and then went to the king after a couple of hours, it would be "the next day" for her..."

But verse 5:1 says that it was on the 3rd day, not the next day.


re: "...but the same day for us. Our reckoning of time is from midnight to midnight."

I don't see how it's affected with how we keep time 2000 years later.
 
You must log in or register to reply here.