Does Grace replace the law?

[Soyeong]

Does Grace replace the law?

The kingdom gospel that Jesus presented the nation of Israel with was integral with the law.

Mat_5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Law of Moses was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom/Grace, which Paul also taught based on the Law of Moses:

Acts 14:21-22 When they had preached the gospel to that city and had made many disciples, they returned to Lystra and to Iconium and to Antioch, 22strengthening the souls of the disciples, encouraging them to continue in the faith, and saying that through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God.

Acts 20:24-25 But I do not account my life of any value nor as precious to myself, if only I may finish my course and the ministry that I received from the Lord Jesus, to testify to the gospel of the grace of God. 25 And now, behold, I know that none of you among whom I have gone about proclaiming the kingdom will see my face again.

Acts 28:23 When they had appointed a day for him, they came to him at his lodging in greater numbers. From morning till evening he expounded to them, testifying to the kingdom of God and trying to convince them about Jesus both from the Law of Moses and from the Prophets.

However, the gospel of grace for the gentiles was not based on the law;

Gal_5:18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

In Romans 7, Paul said that the Law of God is good, that he wanted to do good, that he delighted in obeying it, and that h served it with his mind in contrast with the law of sin, which was working within his members to cause him not to do the good that he wanted to do, which was waging war with the law of his mind, which held him captive, and which he served with his flesh. In Romans 8:1-7, Paul said that the Law of the Spirit of Life has freed us from the law of sin and death, that Jesus set us free from the law of sin so that we might be free to obey the Law of God, and he contrasted those who walk in the Spirit with those who have minds set on the flesh who are enemies of God who refuse to submit to the Law of God.

In Galatians 5:14, Paul spoke in favor of obeying the command to love our neighbor as ourselves, which is one of the greatest two commandments of the Law of God. In Galatians 5:15-23, Paul contrasted the desires of the flesh with the desires of the Spirit and everything that he listed as works of the flesh that are against the Spirit are also against the Law of God while all of the fruits of the Spirit are in accordance with it, such as with love being one of the fruits of the Spirit. The desires of the flesh causing us not to do the good that we want to do is how Paul described his struggle with the law of sin in Romans 7-8, so that is the law that we have been free from by the Law of the Spirit and are not under when we are led by the Spirit. The Law of God was given by God and the Spirit is God, so it would be contradictory to interpret Galatians 5:18 as referring to the Law of God as if we are not led by God when we are led by God.

The new covenant Jesus established is the absolute fulfillment of the written law.

The old covenant at Sinai was offered by God and accepted by the nation of Israel. The new covenant was for Israel and offered by Jesus, but not accepted by Israel. The new covenant will be established when the faithful remnant of Israel accepts the offer at the end of the tribulation.

Today there is no covenantal agreement between God and humanity. We simply have the offer of grace to all who trust in Jesus. This should inspire a heart of gratitude.

Eph 2:12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
Eph 2:13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

The New Covenant was only made with the house of Judah and the house of Israel (Jeremiah 31:33), so it is only through becoming joined to Israel through faith in Christ that Gentiles are able to partake of the New Covenant. In Ephesians 2:12-19, Gentiles were at one time separated from Christ, alienated from Israel and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in this world, which is in accordance with Genie's at one time not being doers of the Law of God, but through faith in Christ all of that is no longer true in that Gentiles are no longer strangers or aliens but are fellow citizens of Israel along with the saints in the household of God, which is in accordance with Gentiles becoming doers of the Law of God.

 

[Soyeong]

Just about everything you wrote in this post is false

How so?

 

[Soyeong]

Christians believe the entire NT is inspired by God, so yes, Jesus preached the Gospel of grace instead of OT legalism,
saying that the only requirement is belief in Him as Messiah and Lord, which is indeed manifested as love/cooperation with GW.

The purpose of the OT laws was to lead sinners to faith in Christ, which is NOT antinomianism/cheap grace.
Christ's commandment was to love everyone aka the Golden Rule.

Moral perfection will never be attained in this earthly lifetime,
but genuine belieers desire to become mature Christians ASAP via learning GW (Eph. 4:11-15).

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Law of Moses was how his audience knew what sin is, so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom/Grace, which Paul also taught based on the Law of Moses (Acts 14:21-22, 20:24-25, 28:23), which is the way to believe in him as Messiah and Lord. God's Word leads us to God's Word made flesh because he is the embodiment of it and it was given in order to teach us how to know Him through following his example of embodying it.

When Paul refers to the "Law", he means the OT Torah and the belief that salvation is obtained via obeying it (Gal. 2:16, Eph. 2:15, etc.).

The Greek word "nomos" is translated as "law" and Paul used it in over ten distinct ways and while some of them are arguably different ways of referring to the Law of Moses, Paul uses it in ways that are in contrast with each other, so they don't always referring to the Law of Moses. For example, in Romans 7:25-8:2, Paul said that he served the Law of God with his mind in contrast with saying that he served the law of sin with his flesh and he said that the Law of the Spirit of Life has set us free from the law of sin and death. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, in Galatians 3:10-12, he contrasted the Book of the Law with "works of the law", and in Romans 3:31, he said that our faith upholds the Law of God in contrast with saying that "works of the law" are not of faith, so that phrase does not refer to the Law of Moses, which is why it is not of faith.

Moreover, Paul was a servant of God, so he could speak against obeying the Law of Moses for an incorrect reasons such as in order to become saved without speaking against being required to obey it for the reasons that God commanded it, so he did not always use "law" in regard to the belief that salvation is obtained as the result of obeying it.

When Paul refers to the "Truth", he means the NT Gospel and the belief that salvation is obtained via faith in Jesus as Messiah & Lord (Gal. 2:5, Eph. 1:13, etc.).

In Psalm 119:29-30, he wanted to put false ways far from him, for God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, and he chose the way of faith by setting it before him, so this has always been the one and only way of salvation by grace through faith. In Psalm 119:142, the Law of God is truth, so that is what Paul meant by "believe the truth" and that is in accordance with the believe that salvation is obtained through faith in Jesus as Messiah and Lord.

Most of the Torah/OT Law was Levitical for the purpose of creating a culture that would produce Messiah
and became void/obsolete/superseded when that purpose was fulfilled by the advent and atonement of Jesus.

Some OT laws were elaborations of God's moral nature, revealed by creation and conscience (general revelation per Rom. 1:20),
and summarized by the Golden Rule (GR)/divine love (DL), which is fulfilled as believers in Messiah cooperate with the HS
(Rom. 5:5, 13:8, Gal. 5:22-23).

Most of the Decalogue laws are expressions of the latter and are expanded/amended and re-commanded in the NT (Matt. 5:20-48),
but the Sabbath Law (SL) is part of the former and was not re-commanded in the NT, although in a sense it too was amended
and expanded (Matt. 12:1-12, Col. 2:16-17, Rom. 12:1-3, Heb. 3:7-4:11) ).

Do you think that Jesus intended for his audience to understand what he meant when he said that he came to fulfill the law? If retroactively insert the cross back into Matthew 5 even though Jesus made no allusion to the cross, then you are interpreting Jesus as having no intention of his audience understanding what he meant. On the other hand, if Jesus did intend for his audience to understand what he meant by fulfilling the law, then it had meaning within the context of Judaism that his audience understood before Jesus said that he came to fulfill it that is not specific to him. There is much discussion in the Talmud about how to fulfill the law in the sense of how to correctly meet our obligation to it.

In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus said that he came to fulfill the law in contrast with saying that he came not to abolish it and he warned against relaxing the least part of it, so you should not interpret fulfilling the law as meaning the same thing as abolishing it or as relaxing even the least part of it. "To fulfill the law" means "to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be" (NAS Greek Lexicon: pleroo), so Jesus proceeded to fulfill the law throughout the rest of Matthew 5 by correcting what the people had heard being said and by teaching how to correctly obey it as it was originally intended. According to Galatians 5:14, anyone who has ever loved their neighbor has fulfilled the entire law, so it refers to something that countless people have done and should continue to do in perpetuity, not to something unique that Jesus did to make void the Golden Rule. Likewise, in Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the Law of Christ, yet you do not consistently interpret that as making it void.

All of God's laws were given to teach us how to know God through embodying His moral nature. In Matthew 4:4, Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed God as still being an authoritative source and we have no need for the NT to specifically repeat everything that God has spoken in order to know that we should still live by every word that comes from the mouth of God. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the law, so Jesus did not amend it in disagreement with the Father.

 

[Inquisitor]

was the law abolished? can you be lead b the Holy Spirit to follow the Law Jesus said would never pass until heaven and earth pass away?

Are the Gentiles in a blood covenant to obey the Torah?

 

[Soyeong]

Titus 1:14​

This verse specifically warns against listening to Jewish myths and the commands of men who have turned away from the truth. It emphasizes the importance of focusing on sound doctrine rather than human traditions that deviate from the truth.

In Psalm 119:142, the Law of God is truth, and in Proverbs 4:2, sound doctrine is to not forsake the Law of God.

Titus 3:9​

In this verse, Paul advises to avoid foolish disputes, genealogies, and contentions about the law. He states that these discussions are unprofitable and useless, highlighting the need to steer clear of arguments that do not contribute to spiritual growth or understanding.

In Titus 2:11-13, the content of our gift of salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, so we are not required to have first done those works in order to become saved as the result, but rather God graciously teaching us to be a doer of those works is part of the content of His gift of salvation. In Titus 3:1-9, Paul exhorted them do works, so verse 9 should not be applied against those who are exhorting people to do good works in obedience to the Law of God. The Gospel contain genealogies, so Paul speaking against foolish controversies over genealogies and quarreling over the Law of God is not saying to avoid any discussions about genealogies or about the Law of God.

 

[Inquisitor]

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles

Jesus was sent only to the Jews.

Matthew 15:24
But He answered and said, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”

So how can the commencement of the ministry of Jesus to repent for the kingdom of God. Be a light for
the Gentiles when Jesus was not sent to the Gentiles?

I think your missing an understanding of the letter to the Romans.

Romans 11:17
But if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive, were grafted in among them and
became partaker with them of the rich root of the olive tree.

Romans 11:19
You will say then, “Branches were broken off so that I might be grafted in.”

Israel was grafted out of the olive tree because Jesus severed their branches.

Romans 11:23
And they also, if they do not continue in their unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.

The Gentiles were a wild olive tree.

The Jews were a cultivated olive tree.

Jesus was the root of the olive tree.

The Gentiles were a wild olive tree and were grafted into the root of the tree of life.

The act of grafting is not a natural process.

So in conclusion, Gentiles were grafted into Christ at a later stage in history.

Therefore, Jesus was not speaking to the Gentiles during His ministry.

Gentiles are not under the law as they were not the blood covenant people!

 

[Inquisitor]

In Psalm 119:142, the Law of God is truth, and in Proverbs 4:2, sound doctrine is to not forsake the Law of God.


In Titus 2:11-13, the content of our gift of salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, so we are not required to have first done those works in order to become saved as the result, but rather God graciously teaching us to be a doer of those works is part of the content of His gift of salvation. In Titus 3:1-9, Paul exhorted them do works, so verse 9 should not be applied against those who are exhorting people to do good works in obedience to the Law of God. The Gospel contain genealogies, so Paul speaking against foolish controversies over genealogies and quarreling over the Law of God is not saying to avoid any discussions about genealogies or about the Law of God.

Jesus fulfilled the written law and ushered in the eternal law.

The eternal law is the law of Christ.

That is why love is the fulfillment of the law.

The Torah was a poor reflection of the law of Christ.

John 13:34
A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another, even as I have loved you, that
you also love one another.

Jesus fulfilled the law so the new commandment replaced the Torah.

 

[GWH]

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Law of Moses was how his audience knew what sin is, so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom/Grace, which Paul also taught based on the Law of Moses (Acts 14:21-22, 20:24-25, 28:23), which is the way to believe in him as Messiah and Lord. God's Word leads us to God's Word made flesh because he is the embodiment of it and it was given in order to teach us how to know Him through following his example of embodying it.


The Greek word "nomos" is translated as "law" and Paul used it in over ten distinct ways and while some of them are arguably different ways of referring to the Law of Moses, Paul uses it in ways that are in contrast with each other, so they don't always referring to the Law of Moses. For example, in Romans 7:25-8:2, Paul said that he served the Law of God with his mind in contrast with saying that he served the law of sin with his flesh and he said that the Law of the Spirit of Life has set us free from the law of sin and death. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, in Galatians 3:10-12, he contrasted the Book of the Law with "works of the law", and in Romans 3:31, he said that our faith upholds the Law of God in contrast with saying that "works of the law" are not of faith, so that phrase does not refer to the Law of Moses, which is why it is not of faith.

Moreover, Paul was a servant of God, so he could speak against obeying the Law of Moses for an incorrect reasons such as in order to become saved without speaking against being required to obey it for the reasons that God commanded it, so he did not always use "law" in regard to the belief that salvation is obtained as the result of obeying it.


In Psalm 119:29-30, he wanted to put false ways far from him, for God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, and he chose the way of faith by setting it before him, so this has always been the one and only way of salvation by grace through faith. In Psalm 119:142, the Law of God is truth, so that is what Paul meant by "believe the truth" and that is in accordance with the believe that salvation is obtained through faith in Jesus as Messiah and Lord.


Do you think that Jesus intended for his audience to understand what he meant when he said that he came to fulfill the law? If retroactively insert the cross back into Matthew 5 even though Jesus made no allusion to the cross, then you are interpreting Jesus as having no intention of his audience understanding what he meant. On the other hand, if Jesus did intend for his audience to understand what he meant by fulfilling the law, then it had meaning within the context of Judaism that his audience understood before Jesus said that he came to fulfill it that is not specific to him. There is much discussion in the Talmud about how to fulfill the law in the sense of how to correctly meet our obligation to it.

In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus said that he came to fulfill the law in contrast with saying that he came not to abolish it and he warned against relaxing the least part of it, so you should not interpret fulfilling the law as meaning the same thing as abolishing it or as relaxing even the least part of it. "To fulfill the law" means "to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be" (NAS Greek Lexicon: pleroo), so Jesus proceeded to fulfill the law throughout the rest of Matthew 5 by correcting what the people had heard being said and by teaching how to correctly obey it as it was originally intended. According to Galatians 5:14, anyone who has ever loved their neighbor has fulfilled the entire law, so it refers to something that countless people have done and should continue to do in perpetuity, not to something unique that Jesus did to make void the Golden Rule. Likewise, in Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the Law of Christ, yet you do not consistently interpret that as making it void.

All of God's laws were given to teach us how to know God through embodying His moral nature. In Matthew 4:4, Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed God as still being an authoritative source and we have no need for the NT to specifically repeat everything that God has spoken in order to know that we should still live by every word that comes from the mouth of God. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the law, so Jesus did not amend it in disagreement with the Father.

When Paul refers to the "Law" (unqualified), he usually means the OT Torah and the belief that salvation is obtained via obeying it, as in Gal. 3:10-12. Our faith in Christ allows the Spirit of God to reflect His love to others, in contrast with viewing works or obedience of the OT law of Moses as the means of salvation, which is why the new Gospel supersedes the old Torah.

When Paul refers to the "Truth" (unqualified), he usually means the NT Gospel and the belief that salvation is obtained via faith in Jesus as Messiah & Lord (Gal. 2:5, Eph. 1:13, etc.).

Yes, I think Jesus intended for his audience to understand what he meant when he said that he came to fulfill the least part of the law, and He explained what He meant most fully in Heb. 7:21-10:1, which is indicated most succinctly by the term "superseded" rather than "abolished". Perhaps you would prefer the term "clarified"? Yes, the context or the law that He fulfilled was the Jewish Torah.

Yes, Jesus proceeded to fulfill the law by correcting what the people had heard being said and by teaching how to correctly obey it as it was originally intended by God, but this is the NT/Christian insight--not the way it was understood until Jesus amended it. It is nice to see you citing the teaching of Jesus via Paul's epistles (Gal. 5:14, 6:2, Matt. 4:4).

Re "All of God's laws were given to teach us how to know God through embodying His moral nature.": Well, all of the moral commandments did that, but not the Levitical laws, which were given to separate the Jews from the rest of humanity until Messiah made them moot.

Re "per Deut. 4:2 it is a sin to add to or subtract from the law, so Jesus did not amend it in disagreement with the Father." I would advise interpreting the OT in light of the NT so you do not disagree with God by reversing to legalism. IOW, it was the Father in Christ who as LORD amended the NT, so do not divorce them or accuse God of being schizophrenic.

 

[Inquisitor]

Re "All of God's laws were given to teach us how to know God through embodying His moral nature.": Well, all of the moral commandments did that, but not the Levitical laws, which were given to separate the Jews from the rest of humanity until Messiah made them moot.

I disgree.

The law has a primary definition and that is the Torah; the first five books of the O.T.

The law (the Torah) was given only to the nation of Israel.

Israel was in a blood covenant and a conditional covenant, at that, to obey the law.

Israel agreed to the covenant conditions and replied "we will obey".

The Gentile nations were under the law of Noah and were not in a blood covenant with God,
to obey the law (the Torah).

As for splitting the atom; calling out sections of the law such as moral, Levitical, or sacrificial...

As partly fulfilled or not fulfilled by Jesus would be firmly rejected.

May I remind you, that Jesus came to fulfill the entire law and the prophets.

Not some part of the law such as sacrificial or Levitical law.

If you think that not stealing or not telling a lie gives you an insight into God's moral nature,
then you. Have not received the revelation of the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

The fruit of the H.S reflect the Lord's nature exactly not a partial, dim, reflection of God's nature
via the law.

God is love and that divine love covers, fulfills any moral rule you could possibly think of.

That's why the law is superficial and an introduction into the revelation of the Christ.

 

[BBerean]

Seems to me some make the error of nailing the law to the cross of Christ , actually it was the sins of breaking the law that where nailed to the cross . Jesus one time sacrifice supersedes the continual need of animal sacrifices that did not please God either . And could not make the sinners whole , because they still had a defiled conscience. Jesus now our mediator in heaven at Gods right hand is so much better than a priest offering an animal for our sins . But the Law is holy just and perfect the word of God in itsself . So don’t think the law is inferior to God . It’s man’s sinning against the Perfect law that is the problem , there fore John 3.16 is the remedy to the repentant sinner . I think many don’t understand what repentance is . God must teach us that as well . Sorry I don’t have Bible references here . It’s just as it comes to me , quite basic as I see it . I hope it helps some one .

 

[GWH]

I disgree.

The law has a primary definition and that is the Torah; the first five books of the O.T.
The law (the Torah) was given only to the nation of Israel.
Israel was in a blood covenant and a conditional covenant, at that, to obey the law.
Israel agreed to the covenant conditions and replied "we will obey".

The Gentile nations were under the law of Noah and were not in a blood covenant with God,
to obey the law (the Torah).
As for splitting the atom; calling out sections of the law such as moral, Levitical, or sacrificial...
As partly fulfilled or not fulfilled by Jesus would be firmly rejected.

May I remind you, that Jesus came to fulfill the entire law and the prophets.
Not some part of the law such as sacrificial or Levitical law.
If you think that not stealing or not telling a lie gives you an insight into God's moral nature,
then you. Have not received the revelation of the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

The fruit of the H.S reflect the Lord's nature exactly not a partial, dim, reflection of God's nature
via the law.
God is love and that divine love covers, fulfills any moral rule you could possibly think of.
That's why the law is superficial and an introduction into the revelation of the Christ.

I see you disagreed with saying "all of the moral commandments indicated God's moral nature, but not the Levitical laws,
which were given to separate the Jews from the rest of humanity until Messiah made them moot." However, I do not see how saying "The law has a primary definition and that is the Torah; the first five books of the O.T. The law (the Torah) was given only to the nation of Israel." explains why you disagreed with what I said, so please explain. Yes, the Torah/OC was with Israel, not with the Gentiles. That is what is meant by saying "Levitical laws, which were given to separate the Jews from the rest of humanity until Messiah made them moot." I assume the Noahic moral law is equivalent to general revelation, which overlaps or is redundant with the Torah moral laws.

Re "As for splitting the atom; calling out sections of the law such as moral, Levitical, or sacrificial...
As partly fulfilled or not fulfilled by Jesus would be firmly rejected.": I do not follow this; please clarify.

Yes, Jesus came to fulfill the entire law and the messianic prophecies, but it is only the sacrificial or Levitical law that was made moot, because Jesus/the NT re-commanded the moral laws, including those against stealing or lying, because those reflect God's moral nature/the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

Yes, God is love and divine love covers all moral laws, which serve as an introduction to the righteousness of Christ.

 

[pinebeach]

Except the LORD build the house, they labour in vain that build it: Ps 127:1

Since God built the New Covenant, we can understand why those who continually reference the Old Testament are building in
sinking sand. Not very wise. It's truly sad that you do not understand that.

 

[UnoiAmarah]

Since God built the New Covenant, we can understand why those who continually reference the Old Testament are building in
sinking sand. Not very wise. It's truly sad that you do not understand that.

" Few men have virtue to withstand the highest bidder. " See 1 Cor 6:20

 

[pinebeach]

" Few men have virtue to withstand the highest bidder. " See 1 Cor 6:20

My virtue does not count for salvation. Jesus is the Way; not you and your platitudes that you mistakenly think make you sound like you are 'all that'.

In deed I was bought with a price. The highest price of all and I'm not sure you understand that.

 

[UnoiAmarah]

In deed I was bought with a price. The highest price of all and I'm not sure you understand that.

Indeed you were, "But if the priest buy any soul with his money, he shall eat of it, and he that is born in his house: they shall eat of his meat." Lev 22:11

Do you understand "Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made you free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage."

 

[Inquisitor]

Since God built the New Covenant, we can understand why those who continually reference the Old Testament are building in
sinking sand. Not very wise. It's truly sad that you do not understand that.

That's what they were taught; pour that new wine into the old wine skin!

What I would like to know is how wide and deep is God's grace for folk, that are taught
to follow the law?

 

[UnoiAmarah]

The Torah was a poor reflection of the law of Christ.

If the eternal law is law of Christ then the OT law would be eternal since the principle of eternal holds that the eternal has no beginning nor end of existence, nor is there any shade of turning or variableness in the eternal so it would never change.

The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law. Deut 29:29

 

[Inquisitor]

If the eternal law is law of Christ then the OT law would be eternal since the principle of eternal holds that the eternal has no beginning nor end of existence, nor is there any shade of turning or variableness in the eternal so it would never change.

The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law. Deut 29:29

How could anyone even think for one moment that the old covenant law is eternal?

Will there be idolatry in heaven?

Will people be stealing things in heaven when you possess everything?

Will you be coveting your neighbors oxen in heaven?

Will you become a serial killer in heaven given we become like angels up there?

Will sleeping with your neighbors wife in heaven, given there is no male or female upstairs
be a law in heaven?

Why would a person need the law in heaven?

So the question of the eternal nature of the law has been answered.

The law was a temporary entity because "eternal" means no boundaries by definition,
that means the law has no start date or end date.

Galatians 3:17
What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate
a covenant previously ratified by God.

Someone is in deep error on this point.

 

[Gideon300]

If the eternal law is law of Christ then the OT law would be eternal since the principle of eternal holds that the eternal has no beginning nor end of existence, nor is there any shade of turning or variableness in the eternal so it would never change.

The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law. Deut 29:29

Christ fulfilled the Law. Will people who call themselves Christians please get out of the Old Testament until they know what the New has to say? If you had any idea, you would know that the law is the shadow of the reality, which is Christ. You would also know that the purpose of the law is to lead us to Christ.

I'll tell you what the NT has to say:

1 Timothy 1:5-11

"The goal of our instruction is the love that comes from a pure heart, a clear conscience, and a sincere faith. Some have strayed from these ways and turned aside to empty talk. They want to be teachers of the law, but they do not understand what they are saying or that which they so confidently assert.

Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it legitimately. We realize that law is not enacted for the righteous, but for the lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinful, for the unholy and profane, for killers of father or mother, for murderers, for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching that agrees with the glorious gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted."

Maybe you have a different Bible, but mine says that believers are righteous by faith, not by law. (Galatians 5:5) If you are still bound to the law then you are unrighteous and you are not saved.

I am obliged to speak the truth to those who are ignorant of the purpose of the law and its relevance to the believer. If you don't like it, argue with God. He is the inspiration behind the NT, not me.

 

[UnoiAmarah]

That's what they were taught; pour that new wine into the old wine skin!

Come on now, only the copyrighted Bibles use the term wine skins. So there, they took the truth and turned it into a wine and put it in you.

What I would like to know is how wide and deep is God's grace for folk, that are taught to follow the law?

Its peaceful in the deep...