Faith Alone?

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Faith demands works, I agree, but what you're missing is Galatians 2:10, "I'm justified by the faith of Jesus Christ." That little word "of" tells us it that saving faith was accomplished through the work on the cross. That's the faith that saves and justifies a man. My puny faith wavers from month to month, week to week, day to day, hour to hour, moment by moment. I am pathetic! Thank you Lord for your faith that saved me even when my faith fails!

That little word "of" has been replaced in all the new bible versions with the word "in" demanding that it is our faith that justifies us. The devil loves to change the word of God even in the slightest. One word changes the whole meaning of the passage.
 
#241 Dan
Is the baptism in the name of Christ, in water, associated with the forgiveness of sins?
The forgiveness of sins is signified (but not procured) in water baptism. Whoever believes in Him will receive forgiveness of sins (Acts 10:43) BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

The idea that baptism in water is because we have been saved and not in order to be saved is invalid according to Jesus who said, “ He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved. (Mark 16: 15, 16)
As I already explained to you numerous times (but over your head it continues to go) Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Water baptism is because we have been saved. Acts 10:43 - To Him all the prophets witness that, through His name, whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins. 44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. 45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God. (BEFORE WATER BAPTISM) Then Peter answered, 47 "Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?"

The Jews, according to God’s commandments, washed with water for purification and cleansing for centuries. (Ex. 29: 4; Lev.11: 32, 36; 2 Kings 5: 14; Ez.36: 25)
Ritual purification ceremonies in the OT were designed to lead to ceremonial cleanness only, not to moral and spiritual purity and thus to salvation. Right after we read about water baptism in verses 22-24, in John 3:25, we read - An argument developed between some of John's disciples and a certain Jew over the matter of ceremonial washing. Baptism is the emblem of the washing away of sins by the death of Christ. So baptism does not wash away sins literally, but ceremonially, (plain ordinary H20 has no power to literally wash away sins) pointing to the death of Christ by which sins are actually washed away.

John the Baptist came preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sin, (Mark 1: 4) confirming that in God’s purpose, the two works of faith, baptism and repentance, are both bound up in forgiveness.
Was this baptism for "in order to obtain" forgiveness or for "in regards to/on the basis of" forgiveness received upon repentance? Be careful. I hear people who attend the church of Christ say that water baptism was not necessary for salvation before Pentecost but is after Pentecost. Mark 1:4 is before Pentecost. In Matthew 3:11, we read - "I baptize you with water for (eis) repentance." Is this baptism for "in order to obtain" repentance or for "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Baptism is done "in regards to/on the basis of" the remission of sins that has been received upon repentance. *Baptized "in order to obtain" repentance makes no sense whatsoever. *We don't baptize those who have not repented in order for them to obtain repentance.

The baptism in the name of Jesus, in water, continues this association of baptism and repentance with forgiveness of sin. (Acts 2: 38, 39)
Again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.

The washing with water (baptism) is specifically stated to remove sin. (Acts 22: 16)
This "washing away of sin" in water baptism was only "formal" or symbolic. As Greek scholar AT Robertson points out - baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ. Water baptism does not wash the soul. This occurred earlier when Paul came to faith in Christ. Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary makes not of the importance of the Greek in Ananias' statement. When Ananias tells Paul to "arise, be baptized, wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord," the tense of the last command is literally "having called" (aorist middle participle). "Calling on [epikalesamenos] --- 'having (that is, after having) called on,' referring the confession of Christ which preceded baptism." [Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, vol. 3 pg. 160]. Kenneth Wuest picks up on this Greek nuance and translates the verse as follows: "And now, why are you delaying? Having arisen, be baptized and wash away your sins, having previously called upon His Name." (Acts 22:16, Wuest's Expanded NT). The thief on the cross was saved when he called on the name of the Lord in faith - "Lord, remember me when You come into Your kingdom." (Luke 23:43) *The thief was not even water baptized.* As I explained to you before, no Scripture is to be interpretated in isololation from the totality of Scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa.

The washing with water (baptism) is for cleansing. (Eph. 5: 26; Heb. 10: 22; 1 Cor. 6: 11; Titus 3: 5)
Ephesians 5:26 says washing of water BY THE WORD, not by baptism. Washing with water on the outside is for ceremonial cleansing and does not equate to spiritual cleansing on the inside which occurs through the washing of regeneration which involves the Holy Spirit, living water and the word. You continue to confuse the symbol/picture with the reality. :(

All spiritual blessings (including forgiveness) are in Christ, (Eph. 1: 3, 7; Col. 1: 14) but we are baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 3; Gal. 3: 26, 27)
We've already discussed these passages of Scripture numerous times plain talk and repeating your arguments over and over again does not make them any more true. Your broken record arguments which you continue to "parrot off" from Wayne Jackson are getting old. Ephesians 2:5 - even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), 6 and raised us up together, and made us sit together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, 7 that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not of works, lest anyone should boast. Saved by grace through faith, NOT THROUGH WATER BAPTISM. Romans 3:24 - being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. NOT THROUGH WATER BAPTISM. Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes, in order to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are sanctified by faith in Me. NOT BY WATER BAPTISM. Now go back to page 12 and read post #230 in regards to Galatians 3:26-27.

We are freed from sin when the old self dies, (Rom. 6: 7) this occurs in baptism. (Rom. 6: 3- 6)
This occurs when we believe in Him/through faith (Acts 10:43; 15:9) and water baptism is the picture of the reality. A symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.

We are freed from sin (Rom. 6: 17, 18) when we obey that form of teaching—death—burial—resurrection, this occurs in baptism. (Rom. 6: 3-6)
Again, water baptism is the picture, but not the reality. Romans 6:17 - We obey that form of teaching and are freed from sin when we choose to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16). Read Romans 10:16 - But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

In Romans 6:16, there is a contrast here between servants/slaves. There are only two kinds of servants/slaves in this world, in the spiritual sense; servants/slaves of sin unto death, or servants/slaves of obedience unto righteousness. When we place our faith exclusively in Christ for salvation/believe the gospel by trusting in His finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of our salvation, we then become "servants of obedience unto righteousness." Being slaves of sin is put in the past tense. Paul goes on in Romans 6:18 - "You have been set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness."

*Notice in Romans 10:10 - For with the heart one believes unto righteousness..

*Notice in Romans 4:5 - But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith (not works) is accounted for righteousness.

*Compare 1 Peter 1:22 - "purified your souls in obeying the truth" with Acts 15:9 - “purified their hearts by faith.”

When we obey Jesus Christ (repentance and baptism), we are sprinkled and washed with the blood of Christ. (1 Peter 1: 2; Heb. 9: 14; 10: 22; Rev. 1: 5; 7: 14)
When we obey Christ by choosing to believe the gospel, we are sprinkled and washed with the blood of Christ BEFORE water baptism (Romans 1:16; 10:16). Romans 3:24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, 26 to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

It is a mistake to disassociate baptism from the forgiveness of sin.
It is a mistake to make baptism the cause of the forgiveness of sin. The forgiveness of sin is signified, but not procured in the waters of baptism.

The washing with water is a symbol of the washing in the blood of Christ.
God bless.
Water baptism is a symbol, but not the reality. Plain ordinary H20 is not the washing of regeneration, but is the picture of it. You continue to confuse the symbol with the reality. When will you finally BELIEVE?
 
Why try and make them harmonize? That has never been successful, ask Martin Luther, he couldn't so he wanted to burn it. Simply rightly divide the word of truth. James is talking to the twelve tribes scattered during the great tribulation in which one would have to have faith and works to save himself through to the millennium. Paul is speaking to you and me, the Church, the body of Christ. To make them harmonize, one has to privately interpret Scripture.

I love the book of James. It has great things in it, but I also know the audience is not the Church. To make twelve tribes mean "Christian Jews," you have to add to the word again. No thank you.

If they are not harmonized,how would the reader look at the scriptures that Paul wrote and the scriptures that James wrote and know If salvation Is by faith In CHRIST alone or by faith In CHRIST + works?
 
If they are not harmonized,how would the reader look at the scriptures that Paul wrote and the scriptures that James wrote and know If salvation Is by faith In CHRIST alone or by faith In CHRIST + works?


How would a reader know if salvation comes through the blood sacrifices of animals? A believer is to share the gospel of Jesus Christ to a lost person, not hand them a Bible and see if they can figure it out. Anyway, the address has the book written to the twelve tribes scattered abroad. The reader could figure it out if they read the address. Paul addresses the Church, the body of Christ.
 
#241 Dan
Are we justified by faith alone?
Dan says, “We are justified by faith IN CHRIST alone (Romans 3:24; 5:1).
We are not justified by the kind of faith that "remains alone" (solitary, unfruitful, barren) which demonstrates that this claim of faith is not genuine faith but an empty profession of faith/a dead faith - James 2:14-20. Man is saved through faith and not by works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is vindicated, substantiated, evidenced by works (James 2:14-24). *Please pay close attention - The word "alone" in regards to salvation through faith "in Christ alone" conveys the message that Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not on the merits of our works. It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24-28; 4:2-6; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony.*”

Let’s look at the two passages he cites:
[SUP]23 [/SUP]for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, [SUP]24 [/SUP]being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; (Rom. 3: 23, 24)
1 Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, (Rom. 5: 1)
Dan says that genuine faith is vindicated and substantiated and evidenced by works but he forgot one term, probably the most important in this account, FAITH IS PERFECTED BY WORKS. Faith is not complete until it obeys.
I don’t know the heart of Dan but I do know that neither of those two passages state that justification is by faith alone. And I know that James, the brother of the Lord, tells us, “You see that a man is justified by works, and not faith alone.” (James 2: 24) James repudiates the faith alone view! We must ask, “In what sense is James saying this?” For we also know that said, “For if Abraham is justified by works, he has something to boast about; but not before God.” (Rom. 4: 2) IMO James is saying that a man is justified by works only in the sense that the works perfect or complete our faith. We are justified by a “perfected faith”, a “completed faith” and we are saved by a perfected faith and a perfected love. The very fact that the Scriptures speak of a “perfected faith” and a “perfected love”, indicates that there is a lower level or levels of both faith and love. John tells us that the one who keeps His word is the one in whom the love of God has been truly perfected. Furthermore John says that the one who claims to know God, but does not keep His commandments is a liar. (1 John 2: 4, 5) Paul, on the other hand, speaks of works, of which one may boast, works of the law (based on performance, not faith) and works of merit. (Gal. 2; 16; Titus 3: 5)
To say that we are not justified by the kind of faith that “remains alone,” indicates that it was alone when it justified. And James tells us that a faith, which is by itself, is dead and useless. (James 2: 17, 20) We are justified by a perfected faith, a faith that was working with and accompanied by works of faith leading to perfection of that faith. We are saved and justified by faith, but not by faith alone. We are not saved nor justified by works of the Law nor works of merit. We are saved and justified by a faith that is mingled with love. We are saved and justified by faith which works with works of faith to perfect faith. The works of Christ were completed by Christ but they are received by faith which works in love. We are justified by works of faith, but only in the sense that they perfect both faith and love.
God bless.
 
Faith of Christ = what justifies my salvation through my belief in Christ (has everything to do with salvation, never waivers)

My faith = obedience upon the foundation of Christ (has nothing to do with salvation, always waivers)
 
All missing the point. The question James said is "can faith save him?" Not, do works follow faith. One has to twist the word to make it fit a theology. James is speaking to the twelve tribes of Israel during the great tribulation after the catching up of the saints. During the great trib one has to have faith plus works, enduring to the end of the trib. That's not Church Age doctrine.

If you can't see this then explain the man in 1 Cor. 3 who had the foundation settled (Jesus Christ), but did no works that abide the fire, yet he was saved. No works after the foundation, yet saved. Should we continue on to good works? Absolutely.

No, I'm not missing it. You're trying to distort it. It's only a game to you.
I see what you mean.
 
#241 Dan
Are we justified by faith alone?
Dan says, “We are justified by faith IN CHRIST alone (Romans 3:24; 5:1).
We are not justified by the kind of faith that "remains alone" (solitary, unfruitful, barren) which demonstrates that this claim of faith is not genuine faith but an empty profession of faith/a dead faith - James 2:14-20. Man is saved through faith and not by works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is vindicated, substantiated, evidenced by works (James 2:14-24). *Please pay close attention - The word "alone" in regards to salvation through faith "in Christ alone" conveys the message that Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not on the merits of our works. It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24-28; 4:2-6; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony.*
Amen! Unfortunately, I see that everything I explained to you here went right over your head. :(

Let’s look at the two passages he cites:
[SUP]23 [/SUP]for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, [SUP]24 [/SUP]being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; (Rom. 3: 23, 24)
1 Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, (Rom. 5: 1)
What part of "being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus" and "having been justified by faith" don't you understand? *Keys words here - justified, grace, redemption in Christ Jesus, faith.

Dan says that genuine faith is vindicated and substantiated and evidenced by works but he forgot one term, probably the most important in this account, FAITH IS PERFECTED BY WORKS. Faith is not complete until it obeys.
As I already explained to you numerous times, "perfected" or "made complete" by works means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It does not mean that Abraham was finally saved AFTER he accomplished the work of offering up Isaac on the altar, many years after he believed God and his faith was accounted to him for righteousness in Genesis 15:6. When Abraham performed the work of offering up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6. You are confused about the word "perfected" and this remains a major stumbling block for you! Abraham was already saved many years BEFORE he obeyed God by offereing up Isaac on the altar. You are making this out to be a lot more complicated than it really is and it's all because you erroneously teach salvation by works.

In James 2:14, we read of one who "says-claims he has faith" but has no works (produces no works to back up his claim). This is not genuine faith, but a bare profession of faith. So when James asks, "Can that faith save him?" he is saying nothing against genuine faith, but only against an empty profession of faith/a dead faith. *Good works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of genuine saving faith, but not the essence of faith and not the means of our salvation. James does not teach that we are saved "by" works. His concern is to SHOW the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. Simple! James is discussing the proof of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18), not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.

I don’t know the heart of Dan but I do know that neither of those two passages state that justification is by faith alone.
Neither of those two passages state that justification is by faith AND works. NOWHERE does Paul state that justification is based on the merits of our works. In Romans 5:1, Paul said justified by faith "apart from additions or modifications." Grace and Christ's finished work of redemption is God's part and faith is our part. The Bible clearly teaches in over many passages of scripture that we are saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications." (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..). You don't need to add the word "alone" next to belief/faith in each of these passages of scripture in order to figure out that the words belief/faith "stand alone" in these many passages of scripture in connection with receiving eternal life/salvation. Do these many passages of scripture say faith "plus something else?" NO! So then it's faith (rightly understood) IN CHRIST alone.

And I know that James, the brother of the Lord, tells us, “You see that a man is justified by works, and not faith alone.”
CONTEXT! James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is "shown to be righteous." Again, James is discussing the proof of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18), not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3).

(James 2: 24) James repudiates the faith alone view!
James repudiates the kind of faith that claims to be genuine (says-claims he has faith but has no works to back up his claim), thus demonstrating by the lack of works that this is not genuine faith but an empty profession of faith, a dead faith. That's what James means by "alone" - barren of works." When you hear a genuine believer say that we are saved by "faith alone," they are not saying that we are saved by the "kind" of faith that "remains alone" - barren of works. Saving faith results in producing good works (Ephesians 2:8-10), so it's not alone in that sense but it's still faith (belief, trust, reliance) in Christ for salvation part of the equation that "alone" saves you as the instrumental means. Good works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of genuine saving faith in Christ, but they are not the instrumental means by which we receive eternal life as well. Good works are the FRUIT of salvation, but NOT the root. So the word "alone" in regards to salvation through faith in "Christ alone" conveys the message that Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone," not on the merits of our works. It is through faith IN CHRIST alone (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). Simple! Too simple! This is not hard to understand, just hard for you to ACCEPT! Faith (the act of trusting) in Christ "alone" for salvation and faith that remains "alone" (barren of works) are two separate alones in connection with two different things.

We must ask, “In what sense is James saying this?” For we also know that said, “For if Abraham is justified by works, he has something to boast about; but not before God.” (Rom. 4: 2)
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:

1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be

In the Bible the word "justified" is often used in the "legal" (judicial) sense. Paul often uses the word "justified" in this "legal" sense (Romans 3:24,28; 4:2; 5:1; 5:9; 8:30 etc..). The word justified is also used in a "declarative sense." James has this aspect of justification in mind. As we have seen, his concern is to show the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. This is why James says I will SHOW you my faith by my works.

In Matthew 12:37, "For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words reveal the state of our hearts. Words will appear to be evidences for, or against a man's being in a state of grace and righteousness.

God is said to have been justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, "acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV says, "they declared God just.." This is the sense in which God was justified, "shown to be righteous."

Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is justified/vindicated/ (dikaioo - shown to be right) by her deeds."

IMO James is saying that a man is justified by works only in the sense that the works perfect or complete our faith.
Justified by works means that we are "shown to be righteous" by our works (James 2:14-18), but not accounted as righteous by our works (Romans 4:2-3). Works perfect or complete our faith does not mean we are saved by works. It simply means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6. Simple! *Notice that James was said to be "justified by works" (James 2:21) many years AFTER Abraham was said to believe God and his faith was accounted to him for righteousness (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:3). *According to your logic, Abraham remained a lost man UNTIL he offered up Isaac on the altar, which is when his faith was said to be perfected (James 2:22). Your logic of being saved by a "perfected faith" negates Genesis 15:6 and Romans 4:2-3.

We are justified by a “perfected faith”, a “completed faith” and we are saved by a perfected faith and a perfected love.
So according to you, Abraham was not saved UNTIL his faith was perfected, AFTER he offered up Isaac on the altar, (James 2:22) which equates to Abraham being saved by works, which negates Genesis 15:6 and Romans 4:2-3. We are saved the moment that we place our faith (belief, trust, reliance) in CHRIST ALONE for salvation BEFORE we accomplish anything further. We are saved by grace through faith, NOT WORKS, then created in Christ Jesus UNTO/FOR good works (Ephesians 2:8-10). You have the tail wagging the dog, the cart before the horse!

The very fact that the Scriptures speak of a “perfected faith” and a “perfected love”, indicates that there is a lower level or levels of both faith and love.
So you are saying that believers are not actually saved through faith UNTIL their faith and love are perfected? How many good works and acts of love does that take? Where do you draw the line in the sand and say that you have accomplished x,y and z so NOW your faith and love are perfected and NOW the Lord will finally be able to save you? :eek:

John tells us that the one who keeps His word is the one in whom the love of God has been truly perfected. Furthermore John says that the one who claims to know God, but does not keep His commandments is a liar. (1 John 2: 4, 5) Paul, on the other hand, speaks of works, of which one may boast, works of the law (based on performance, not faith) and works of merit. (Gal. 2; 16; Titus 3: 5)
You continue to erroneously equate the word "perfected" with salvation by works. *Notice the word claims to know God (1 John 2:4), but does not keep His commandments. Just like James 2:14 - claims to have faith but has no works. 1 John 2:3 - Now by this we know that we know Him (demonstrative evidence), if we keep His commandments. 1 John 2:4 - He who says-claims, "I know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. By the way, the word "keep" comes from the Greek word tereo Strongs #5083 and means to keep, to guard, to watch over, preserve. It does not mean sinless, perfect obedience to all of Christ's commandments 100% of the time, so don't turn this into salvation by works. Believers keep His commandments BECAUSE we are saved and not to become saved. You must not confuse DESCRIPTIVE passages of scripture with PRESCRIPTIVE passages of scripture. You also cannot dissect the law. Good works fall under the MORAL aspect of the law so your saved by "these works" and just not "those works" argument fails. Your gospel plan is based on man's performance and is a "different" gospel.

To say that we are not justified by the kind of faith that “remains alone,” indicates that it was alone when it justified.
When we are initially justified by faith in Christ, how many works have we performed in the next couple of seconds? You make it sound like James is saying that our faith cannot save us UNTIL we perform a list of works and then we are saved by those works. That is NOT what James is saying. In James 2:15, we read - "If a brother or sister is naked and destitute of daily food, 16 and one of you says to them, "Depart in peace, be warmed and filled," but you do not give them the things which are needed for the body, what does it profit?" Believers do not feed and clothe brothers and sisters who are in need "instantaneously upon conversion." It takes time to come upon these situations after conversion which demonstrates genuine faith by helping them or a dead faith by simply saying to them, depart in peace, be warmed and filled. You make it sound like our faith is dead UNTIL it produces good works. That's like saying that a tree is dead UNTIL it produces fruit. A dead faith does not produce good works in order to become a living faith but BECAUSE it's a living faith (alive in Christ by grace through faith - Ephesians 2:5-8). A dead tree does not produce fruit in order to become a living tree but BECAUSE it's a living tree.

And James tells us that a faith, which is by itself, is dead and useless. (James 2: 17, 20)
Given time to produce works and "demonstrate" whether it's alive or not. You misinterpret these verses to mean that our faith is dead upon conversion (Ephesians 2:5-8) and is not alive UNTIL we produce good works later (Ephesians 2:10). That is not what James is saying. By your misinterpretation of James 2:14-24, you negate Ephesians 2:5-10.

We are justified by a perfected faith, a faith that was working with and accompanied by works of faith leading to perfection of that faith.
Abraham's faith was not said to be perfected until he offered up Isaac on the altar (James 2:22) yet James was said to believe God and his faith was accounted to him for righteousness many years before (Genesis 15:6). We are justified (in a legal sense) through faith, not works (Romans 4:2-6) and we are justified in a declarative sense "shown to be righteous" by works (James 2:14-18). Your erroneous conclusion leads to salvation through faith AND works. We are saved through faith, NOT WORKS.

We are saved and justified by faith, but not by faith alone.
As I already explained numerous times, it is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24-28; 4:2-6; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony.*

We are not saved nor justified by works of the Law nor works of merit.
We are not saved or justified (in the legal sense/accounted as righteous) by works of any kind. Any works that you "add" to salvation through faith (even if they fall under the MORAL aspect of the law) become works of merit because then we are saved by those works. You just don't get it!

We are saved and justified by a faith that is mingled with love.
We are saved through faith and then afterwards our faith works through love because we are born of God, we have become new creations in Christ and we have received the love of God in our hearts by the Holy Spirit who was given to us (believers - Romans 5:5).

We are saved and justified by faith which works with works of faith to perfect faith.
Basically you are saying that we are saved and justified (in the legal sense-accounted as righteous) based on faith AND works, so why don't you just come out and plainly admit it.

The works of Christ were completed by Christ but they are received by faith which works in love.
They are received by faith in Christ (which trusts exclusively IN HIM for salvation and not in works) then afterwards works in love because we are in Him.

We are justified by works of faith, but only in the sense that they perfect both faith and love.
God bless.
We are justified by works, but only in the sense that we are "shown to be righteous" (James 2:14-24) and not in the sense that we are "accounted as righteous" (Romans 3:24; 4:2-6; 5:1). Perfected faith (that you confuse with salvation by works) means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. So when was Abraham's faith accounted to him for righteousness? In Genesis 15:6 when he believed God or not until many years later, after he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22? His faith was said to be perfected in James 2:22 in regards to what he did in Genesis 22. So when was Abraham saved? Before or after he offered up Isaac on the altar? It's a rhetorical question.

Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless. I continue to hope and pray that you will repent and believe the gospel.
 
Was Abraham even saved? He was made righteous, but that does not mean saved. Was Abraham:

1. sealed by the Holy Spirit
2. born again
3. redeemed
4. a "new creature in Christ"
5. absent from the body present with the Lord
 
Was Abraham even saved? He was made righteous, but that does not mean saved. Was Abraham:

1. sealed by the Holy Spirit
2. born again
3. redeemed
4. a "new creature in Christ"
5. absent from the body present with the Lord
Are you implying that "faith accounted to him for righteousness" means that he was still lost and righteous = lost and not saved? (Romans 4:2-6) Were believers permanently sealed by the Holy Spirit in the OT or not until the New Covenant? Just because we are not yet absent from the body and present with the Lord does not mean that we have not yet been saved through faith.
 
Are you implying that "faith accounted to him for righteousness" means that he was still lost and righteous = lost and not saved? (Romans 4:2-6) Were believers permanently sealed by the Holy Spirit in the OT or not until the New Covenant? Just because we are not yet absent from the body and present with the Lord does not mean that we have not yet been saved through faith.

I am saying that the OT saints were not saved as we know it. They were safe from God's wrath by being placed in Abraham's bosom until Christ's blood was shed. A man could be righteous by following the law, but that did not bring salvation of the soul like we know. Their works declared them to be righteous.
 
I am saying that the OT saints were not saved as we know it. They were safe from God's wrath by being placed in Abraham's bosom until Christ's blood was shed. A man could be righteous by following the law, but that did not bring salvation of the soul like we know. Their works declared them to be righteous.
If the OT saints were not saved, then they would have been in torments in Hades and not in Abraham's bosom (Luke 16:22-23).
 
If the OT saints were not saved, then they would have been in torments in Hades and not in Abraham's bosom (Luke 16:22-23).


If they were saved, they would have not been placed in Abraham's bosom. They were "safe" but not saved yet until the blood was shed. They were not "saved" by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ, they were made righteous by their works.
 
If they were saved, they would have not been placed in Abraham's bosom. They were "safe" but not saved yet until the blood was shed.
You really like to split hairs. If they were lost, then they would have been in torments in Hades, but instead, they were in Abraham's bosom. That's not lost. Saved or lost. No middle ground.

They were not "saved" by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ, they were made righteous by their works.
How could they trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ when it was still a mystery? (Romans 16:25). Where does the Bible say that "man is made righteous by their works?" In Romans 4:2-6, we read 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness." 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt. 5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:
 
How could they trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ when it was still a mystery? (Romans 16:25). Where does the Bible say that "man is made righteous by their works?" In Romans 4:2-6, we read 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness." 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt. 5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:[/QUOTE]


Luke 1:6, "And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless." They were righteous through the works of the law.

Romans 10:3-4, they established their own righteousness through the law, "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."

Their sins were forgiven but not cleared until the blood of Christ cleared them, therefore, they could not be saved like we are until the blood was shed. The righteousness through Christ is not the same as the righteousness of the law.
 
#241 Dan
Dan says, “Noah had already "found grace" (Genesis 6:8), was "a preacher of righteousness" (2 Peter 2:5), and "walked with God" BEFORE he built the ark. His obedience was a DEMONSTRATION of his faith, not the origin of it. Noah was already a righteous man because of his faith BEFORE he built the ark. Again, building the ark was a DEMONSTRATION of his faith (not the origin of it) and saved him and his family (physically) from drowning.”
Are our works of faith merely a demonstration of faith or are they something more? Certainly we would agree that works of faith are a demonstration of our faith before men as James 2: 18 tells us and our confession of Christ before men would confirm. (Matt. 10: 32, 33) The origin of faith is God not man. God sent the Holy Spirit to convict the world of sin, righteousness and judgment. Those who are so convicted are pointed toward Jesus, the Righteous One, who is the propitiation of our sins. We are drawn to Jesus through the love of God that is revealed in the gospel and as we come to Jesus, we deny ourselves. God give grace to the humble but resists the proud. God opens the heart to respond in faith, love and obedience. Faith is a work of God, by the grace of God and a gift received by the heart and mind of man, produced by the word of God. We have already stipulated that works of faith are a demonstration of faith, but in addition WORKS OF FAITH PERFECT OR COMPLETE OUR FAITH. You seem to be unwilling or unable to grasp and acknowledge this aspect of faith. WE ARE SAVED AND JUSTIFIED BY A PERFECTED FAITH. God has appointed certain works of faith to accomplish this end. They are not deeds which we have done in righteousness; they are not of ourselves, they are from God; they are not works of merit and in no sense do we earn salvation.
[SUP]7 [/SUP]By faith Noah, being warned by God about things not yet seen, in reverence prepared an ark for the salvation of his household, by which he condemned the world, and became an heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. (Heb. 11:7) NASB
Yes, Noah was a good man, that is the reason the Lord took note of him, just like Cornelius was a good man in the new Testament. By faith he reverently prepared an ark for the salvation of his household; this he did before they were saved; his work of faith preceded his salvation. Faith in God always is accompanied by works of faith, apparently building the ark was his work of faith. His faith, like Abraham who followed him, was perfected and he BECAME an heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. God bless.
 
How could they trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ when it was still a mystery? (Romans 16:25). Where does the Bible say that "man is made righteous by their works?" In Romans 4:2-6, we read 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness." 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt. 5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:
Sigh. I see that you completely ignored Romans 4:2-6.

Luke 1:6, "And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless." They were righteous through the works of the law.
Ecclesiastes 7:20 - Indeed, there is not a righteous man on earth who continually does good and who never sins. Romans 3:23 - All have sinned and come short of the glory of God. So much for that. Zacharias and Elisabeth were not righteous (in right standing with God) through their own goodness (Isa. 64:6; Rom. 3:10), but their faith was accounted to them as righteousness, just as with Noah (Heb. 11:7) and Abraham (Rom. 4:3). Even under the Old Testament, the only way to be in right standing with God was by faith (Hab. 2:4; Gal. 3:11). No one could keep the law perfectly (Rom. 3:23), so faith had to be put in the mercy and forgiveness of God which was illustrated by the Old Testament blood sacrifices. The Jewish nation as a whole lacked the understanding of justification by faith (Rom. 10:3-9) and had fallen into the deception that they could be righteous by their keeping the law (Mk. 10:17). You will notice here in verse 6 that the scripture doesn't say that Zacharias and Elisabeth were sinless but rather blameless. Through their faith in the blood sacrifices (which were symbolic of Christ), God put the blame for their sins on the Lamb (John 1:29). They accepted God's way and sought to live by it, but without FAITH, they could not be considered blameless by committing theirselves to walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord. In Philippians 3:6, before Paul was saved, we see him describing himself; "Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless." The NIV says, "as for legalistic righteousness, faultless."

Romans 10:3-4, they established their own righteousness through the law, "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."
There you have it. People make the same mistake today.

Their sins were forgiven but not cleared until the blood of Christ cleared them, therefore, they could not be saved like we are until the blood was shed. The righteousness through Christ is not the same as the righteousness of the law.
Salvation has always been through faith. You may want to argue that the content of what was believed progressed from the OT to the New Covenant, but it's always been through faith.
 
You are adding to God's word..................... The demons have faith in God, they know of His power and glory.
You say he is adding to God's word as if that is a bad thing. And then you add to God's word.
Want to give me scripture where it says demons have faith?
Believing in something isn't the same as having faith. But then again, you're not known for being real knowledgeable of something you're trying to instruct on.
 
phil,

you are one of the most special people here on this forum, to US....you must know this by now...

you are talking to a ghost, for this forum chose to 86 RedTent many months ago....

but, we do know that the demons know/always knew Who Jesus Was....
 
#241 Dan
Dan says, “Noah had already "found grace" (Genesis 6:8), was "a preacher of righteousness" (2 Peter 2:5), and "walked with God" BEFORE he built the ark. His obedience was a DEMONSTRATION of his faith, not the origin of it. Noah was already a righteous man because of his faith BEFORE he built the ark. Again, building the ark was a DEMONSTRATION of his faith (not the origin of it) and saved him and his family (physically) from drowning.”
Amen!

Are our works of faith merely a demonstration of faith or are they something more?
*Works of faith are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not the essence of faith and not the means of our salvation.

Certainly we would agree that works of faith are a demonstration of our faith before men as James 2: 18 tells us and our confession of Christ before men would confirm. (Matt. 10: 32, 33)
Amen!

The origin of faith is God not man. God sent the Holy Spirit to convict the world of sin, righteousness and judgment. Those who are so convicted are pointed toward Jesus, the Righteous One, who is the propitiation of our sins. We are drawn to Jesus through the love of God that is revealed in the gospel and as we come to Jesus, we deny ourselves. God give grace to the humble but resists the proud. God opens the heart to respond in faith, love and obedience.
Amen! Although we are commanded to BELIEVE and will be held accountable for unbelief (John 3:18), saving faith in Christ is not exclusively a matter of human decision. Unless the Father draws us in (John 6:44) and enables us/unless it has been granted to him by My Father (John 6:65) we would NEVER come to Christ all by ourselves. The approach of the soul to Christ is initiated by the Father, but He doesn't force us to choose Christ, we must choose Him. The impulse to faith in Christ comes from God.

Faith is a work of God, by the grace of God and a gift received by the heart and mind of man, produced by the word of God. We have already stipulated that works of faith are a demonstration of faith, but in addition WORKS OF FAITH PERFECT OR COMPLETE OUR FAITH. You seem to be unwilling or unable to grasp and acknowledge this aspect of faith.
At least you agree that works of faith are a demonstration of faith. That's a start. Now if you can only come to understand that "works perfect or complete our faith" DOES NOT MEAN SAVED BY WORKS. It simply means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6, yet Abraham's faith was accounted to him for righteousness many years before he offered up Isaac on the altar when his faith was said to be perfected (James 2:22).
I grasp and acknowledge what James said in James 2:22 and I also grasp and acknowledge what Paul said in Romans 4:2-3.

WE ARE SAVED AND JUSTIFIED BY A PERFECTED FAITH.
Abraham was saved and justified (in a legal sense=accounted as righteous) when he believed God (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3) many years BEFORE he offered up Isaac on the altar when he was said to be justified by works (in a declarative sense-shown to be righteous) and his faith was said to be perfected. By you saying that Abraham was NOT saved UNTIL his faith was perfected when he offered up Isaac on the altar many years later, you are denying what God said in Genesis 15:6 and Romans 4:2-3 and are also teaching salvation by works. We are saved and justified (in a legal sense-accounted as righteous) through faith, not works (Romans 3:24; 4:2-6; 5:1) and we are justified by works (in a declarative sense-shown to be righteous). You cannot seem to grasp the difference. Works bear out the justification that already came through faith. Faith is the root and works are the fruit of salvation. No fruit would demonstrate that there is no root.

God has appointed certain works of faith to accomplish this end. They are not deeds which we have done in righteousness; they are not of ourselves, they are from God; they are not works of merit and in no sense do we earn salvation.
We are saved through faith, not works, created in Christ Jesus UNTO/FOR good works (Ephesians 2:8-10). Works of faith are accomplished AFTER we have been saved through faith. Works do not stand between faith and saved. Works follow saved through faith. It's not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us; it's not according to our works; saved by grace through faith is not of ourselves, it is the gift of God, not of works (Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9; Ephesians 2:8,9). Simple! Works that we accomplish AFTER we have been saved through faith are not the means of our salvation no matter how much you try and sugar coat it by saying they are works of God, not works of merit and do not earn salvation. That is sugar coated double talk. If works are the basis of receiving eternal life, then there is merit in accomplishing them and they do earn salvation, at least in part. You can't have it both ways.

[SUP]7 [/SUP]By faith Noah, being warned by God about things not yet seen, in reverence prepared an ark for the salvation of his household, by which he condemned the world, and became an heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. (Heb. 11:7) NASB
Yes, Noah was a good man, that is the reason the Lord took note of him, just like Cornelius was a good man in the new Testament. By faith he reverently prepared an ark for the salvation of his household; this he did before they were saved; his work of faith preceded his salvation.
By faith or "out of faith" which was already established, Noah prepared an ark and saved him and his household (physically) from drowning. Not for the eternal salvation of him and his family. This work of faith did not merit eternal life for Noah and his family. Don't forget, “Noah had already "found grace" (Genesis 6:8), was "a preacher of righteousness" (2 Peter 2:5), and "walked with God" BEFORE he built the ark. His obedience was a DEMONSTRATION of his faith, not the origin of it. There is no getting around that plain talk so you might as well just accept the truth.

Faith in God always is accompanied by works of faith, apparently building the ark was his work of faith.
Faith is always accompanied by works of faith AFTER we have been saved through faith (Ephesians 2:8-10). *Notice the order. Noah did not receive eternal life based on the merits of building the ark. Noah was saved through faith BEFORE he built the ark. Again, “Noah had already "found grace" (Genesis 6:8), was "a preacher of righteousness" (2 Peter 2:5), and "walked with God" BEFORE he built the ark. These terms do not apply to the lost! Please keep reading that until the truth sinks in.

His faith, like Abraham who followed him, was perfected and he BECAME an heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. God bless.
When was Noah said to have "found grace" was said to be a "preacher of righteousness" and was said to have "walked with God?" *Was it BEFORE or after he built the ark? When was Abraham's faith said to have been perfected? (James 2:22; Genesis 22) Was it before or AFTER Abraham's faith was accounted to him for righteousness? (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3). There is no "getting around" these facts plain talk. I hope and pray that you will open your heart and accept the truth. Continue to prayerfully seek for the truth and God bless.