Gentile Christians in Synagogues? Where? When?

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You can falsely accuse all you want. You have that freedom but it only demonstrates to us all how pathetic your use of tactics really are to try and smear others while trying to make yourself look superior, which you aren't. Your snideness gives ample reason to ignore you entirely.

MM
So, what do you know about the politics in the Roman Near East from say 53 BCE through 64 CE? Lots of interesting things occurred in this time frame. There were wars (one arguably lasting for 17 years with Rome on the losing side, another lasting 8 or 9 years with no clear victor) , political assassinations, attempted regime changes by outside authorities, switching back and forth between sides and lots of high-level negotiations. But clearly none of this could possibly be relevant even as people mentioned in scripture were involved.
 
I recently heard a popular theory among some who believe in Law-keeping stating that early Christians attended synagogues for their leaning in the midst of their discipleship.

This is untenable, as it directly contradicts the scriptural record of systematic expulsion from Synagogues. Evidence from the Gospel of John shows that even during Jesus' ministry, Jewish leaders had already formalized a policy to cast out anyone confessing Jesus as the Christ, including natural born Jews and Proselyte Gentiles...especially us Messianic Jews.

This wasn't an unforeseen outcome. Jesus himself repeatedly warned his disciples they would be put out of synagogues, persecuted and flogged. The practical absurdity of a synagogue leader welcoming Gentile followers of a Man they deemed a heretic, combined with the Book of Acts documenting these very expulsions, dismantles the "synagogue as a school" model that my Hebrew Roots friends and others who claim, as biblical fact, the idea that those early members of the body of Christ under Paul's Gospel of Grace attended Synagogue to learn the scriptures.

The textual evidence points not to a cooperative educational program but to a definitive and often violent schism.

The Case Against Synagogue Discipleship

The Primary Contradiction

The arguments I've seen some present refutes the theory that early Christians, particularly Gentiles, attended synagogue weekly to learn the scriptures. The core refutation rests on a simple premise: The theory is not only absent from scripture but is actively contradicted by it.

Scriptural Evidence of Expulsion

There are specific biblical passages to build a case for an early and hostile separation, such as John 9:22. During Jesus' lifetime, the parents of the man born blind refused to comment on his healing because they "feared the Jews," who had already decreed that confessing Jesus as Christ would result in being "put out of the synagogue." This establishes a pre-crucifixion policy of excommunication.

Jesus's Prophecies: Christ explicitly forewarned his disciples about this persecution, stating, "They will put you out of the synagogues," and that they would be beaten, flogged, and delivered to authorities *within* these same synagogues.

Acts of the Apostles: The narrative shows these prophecies fulfilled. Paul's missionary strategy often involved entering a synagogue, preaching that Jesus is the Messiah, and subsequently being chased out by hostile leadership and members.

The Practicality Test

Beyond direct textual evidence, let me highlight the logical and social implausibility of the theory: A scenario where a synagogue leader ever welcomed new Gentile converts to the "heretical" Jesus movement into the Synagogue is nonsensical. The reality of what happened to those people back then and even today dare Christians begin attending Synagogues who believe in Christ Jesus as Messiah, that clearly would not be seen by the Synagogue leadership as a peaceful interfaith dialogue but as a clash between an established religious authority and a movement it actively sought to suppress and destroy in NT times.

I've been there and done that. We of Christ Jesus aren't welcome in Synagogues, even those of us who are of Jewish descent. We're as anathema to the rabbis as those others are who believe in faith alone in Christ alone for salvation are to the Roman Catholic religion.

MM
From what I have learned.

Jewish synagogues existed throughout the Roman Empire.
Not just Israel.
Jews lived throughout the Roman Empire.

Gentiles were free to attend Jewish services.
Sometimes referred to as God-fearing Gentiles.
 
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In Acts 15:21, they expected that Gentiles would continue to learn about how to obey Moses by hearing him taught every Sabbath in the synagogues.

So, you believe this is an acknowledgment of some sort for a command for Gentiles to learn the Law in local Synagogues? Why? Please quote the text and show to us the grammar that would seem to indicate such, coupled with an analysis as to where you think that's stated or implied in the grammar of those passages?

What I see is James, an apostle to Israel, not to Gentiles, was simply saying that the Law of Moses is indeed taught in every province. So what? Notice also in that context that only four of the commands in the Law were handed over to Paul for him to uphold among his Gentile and Jewish converts, with not one statement I can find that said Gentiles were to attend local Synagogues to learn the Law; especially given that they who believed in Christ Jesus as Messiah were not welcome in Jewish Synagogues given that the vast majority of Synagogue leadership disbelieved Messiah had yet come.

For backing to what I'm saying here, let's go on to another exchange between James and Paul:

Acts 21:21
And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.

Given that chapter 21 is at a time long after that meeting in chapter 15 of Acts, thus laying down the death blow to any idea that Gentile believers were expected to learn the Mosaic Law. After all, dare we read the above verse for what it says, Paul was teaching even the Jews under his ministry to "forsake Moses," not to follow him and the Law he was inspired to write down for Israel and Israel alone.

It was certainly a controversial issue, though someone came to the defense of Christians, such as with Gamaliel (Acts 5:32). In Acts 21:20, they were rejoicing that tens of thousands of Jews were coming to faith in Jesus who were all zealous for the Torah, so it is not as though believers in Jesus who were accepting of Gentiles could not have formed their own synagogues.

I attend a synagogue where approximately 1/3 of its members are Jews with the rest being Gentiles and we have had an Orthodox rabbi lead our prayer service a few times, so it is certainly possible for Gentiles to learn at a synagogue.

So, you're in a Synagogue that teaches Orthodox Judaism? As an Israeli I was raised with Torah, and have long since walked away from it given that we are not dead to the Law. Like Paul, I too teach my fellow Jews who are believers to forsake the Mosaic Law.

MM
 
From what I have learned.

Jewish synagogues existed throughout the Roman Empire.
Not just Israel.
Jews lived throughout the Roman Empire.

Gentiles were free to attend Jewish services.
Sometimes referred to as God-fearing Gentiles.

Services? Are you saying they had "services" such as what we see in modern churchianity? Just wondering.

MM
 
Do you th4e politics of the mid-30's CE? You know, an era where Antipas and Aretas were actively fighting each other and Tiberius was involved in judging who was to be punished for the fighting?

Maybe you are unaware of Antipas's coinage, a topic often overlooked in Christian circles because it appears to contradict the official account, that appears to support Antipas being pro-Christian, specifically his minting from 33-4 CE. It is remotely possible that what is possible to be seen as an artifact, but that cannot be confirmed or denied unless the Israeli Artifacts authorities assist in the investigation, and the last I knew they were not cooperating.
You haven’t answered my question. What makes you think we can’t agree with Hengel’s view of the basket episode?

The fighting between Judea and Nabatea was intermittent, not constant. There were long periods when they managed to maintain a peaceful coexistence, despite their mutual claims to bits and pieces of one another’s territory, though quite a few of the locations can’t now be identified with any degree of certainty because of discrepancies in the spelling of place names in the surviving manuscripts of Book 18 of the Antiquities.

Antipas’ marriage to Aretas’ daughter obviously made a substantial contribution to the peacekeeping effort. When she found out that Herodias had agreed to marry Antipas only on the condition that he should immediately divorce her, and that he had agreed to comply with her wish, naturally she passed that information on to her father as soon as she had the opportunity.

At that time Nabatea was a bigger and more prosperous country than Judea. From Aretas’ viewpoint, that meant that he was doing Antipas a favor simply by allowing his daughter to remain married to him. The prospect of an imminent divorce, initiated by Antipas, was an insult to Aretas’ family that he had no reason to leave unavenged. Hence the invasion in 35-36 that would surely have led to a crushing defeat for Antipas had not Rome intervened to enforce a ceasefire.

In my post #70 it had been my intention to pass all this information on to you as succinctly as possible. I now have the impression that I overdid the succinctness and that it would have been more helpful to write it at greater length, giving more details of the historical background. However, I am confident that I have now, with this post, filled in enough of the gaps to give you a satisfactory explanation of why I find Hengel’s account convincing.
 
So, you believe this is an acknowledgment of some sort for a command for Gentiles to learn the Law in local Synagogues? Why? Please quote the text and show to us the grammar that would seem to indicate such, coupled with an analysis as to where you think that's stated or implied in the grammar of those passages?

What I see is James, an apostle to Israel, not to Gentiles, was simply saying that the Law of Moses is indeed taught in every province. So what? Notice also in that context that only four of the commands in the Law were handed over to Paul for him to uphold among his Gentile and Jewish converts, with not one statement I can find that said Gentiles were to attend local Synagogues to learn the Law; especially given that they who believed in Christ Jesus as Messiah were not welcome in Jewish Synagogues given that the vast majority of Synagogue leadership disbelieved Messiah had yet come.
Do you take the position that the four things lists in Acts 15:19-21 contain exhaustive list of everything that is required of mature believers or do you take the position that there are obviously other laws that Gentiles should follow? It is contradictory to treat it as being an exhaustive list for mature believers in order to limit which ways Gentiles should follow Christ while also treating it as being a non-exhaustive list by taking the position that there are obviously other ways that Gentiles should follow Christ. It was not given as an exhaustive list for mature believers but as a list intended to avoid making things too difficult for new believers coming to faith, which they justified in verse 21 with the expectation that Gentiles would continue to learn about how to Christ's example of practicing Judaism by hearing Moses taught every Sabbath in the synagogues. Jews attend synagogues every Sabbath in part to continue to learn about how to practice Judaism, so this would have been the most natural way for Gentiles to continue to learn about how to do that. A Gentile would be extremely confused if they wanted to become a follower of Christ's example of practicing Judaism while wanting nothing to do with following over 99% (609/613) of what he taught.

In Acts 15:21, it starts with the word "For", so there is a grammatical connection between point that Peter was making in that verse and what he said in verses 19-20. I don't see what other point Peter could have been making in verse 21 that is relevant to verses 19-20 if not that Peter was giving Gentiles a starting point and expecting them to continue to learn about how to follow Christ's example of practicing Judaism. Gentiles who convert to Judaism are not expected to have all 613 laws memorized on day one, but rather there is a starting point and a process of continuing to learn over time. How do you think the point that Peter was making in verse 21 is relevant to verses 19-20?

Again, Jewish believers in Jesus were able to form their own synagogues where they were the leaders and where Gentiles would be welcome to continue to learn about how to practice Judaism.

For backing to what I'm saying here, let's go on to another exchange between James and Paul:

Acts 21:21
And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.

Given that chapter 21 is at a time long after that meeting in chapter 15 of Acts, thus laying down the death blow to any idea that Gentile believers were expected to learn the Mosaic Law. After all, dare we read the above verse for what it says, Paul was teaching even the Jews under his ministry to "forsake Moses," not to follow him and the Law he was inspired to write down for Israel and Israel alone.
Acts 6:13-14 and they set up false witnesses who said, “This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law, 14 for we have heard him say that this Jesus of Nazareth will destroy this place and will change the customs that Moses delivered to us.”

It directly states that false witnesses accused Stephen as speaking against this holy plan and the Torah and of speaking about changing the customs of Moses that had been delivered to them, which means that Stephen had not actually been doing that. Similarly, in Acts 21:20-24, they planned to take steps to disprove false rumors that Paul had been teaching to forsake the Torah. They were rejoicing that tens of thousands of Jews were coming to faith in Jesus who were all zealous for the Torah, which is in accordance with Titus 2:14, where Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so Jews coming to faith in Jesus were not ceasing to practice Judaism but were becoming zealous for it. This means that there was a period between the resurrection of Jesus and the inclusion of Gentiles in Acts 10 that is estimate to be around 7-15 years during which all Christians were Torah observant Jews who practiced Judaism, that Christianity at its origin was the sect of Judaism that recognized Jesus as the Messiah, and that Gentiles who were joining this religion were converting to Judaism. In Acts 24:14, Paul testified that according to The Way, which they called a sect, he continue to worship the God of their fathers, believing everything laid down by the Torah and written in the Prophets, and the religion of which The Way is a sect is Judaism.

In Ephesians 2:12-19, Gentiles were at one time separated from Christ, alienated from Israel and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in this world, which is in accordance with Gentiles at one time not being doers of the Torah, but through faith in Christ all of that is no longer true in that Gentiles are no longer strangers or aliens but are fellow citizens of Israel along the saints in the household of God, which is in accordance with Gentiles becoming doers of the Torah. So Gentiles who were joining this religion were also becoming joined to Israel and the Torah being for Israel means that it is also for Gentiles.

So, you're in a Synagogue that teaches Orthodox Judaism? As an Israeli I was raised with Torah, and have long since walked away from it given that we are not dead to the Law. Like Paul, I too teach my fellow Jews who are believers to forsake the Mosaic Law.

MM
Indeed. In Romans 7:21-8:7, Paul said that he delighted in obeying the Law of God in contrast with the law of sin that held him captive, he said that he served the Law of God with his mind in contrast with serving the law of sin with his flesh, he said that the Law of the Spirit has freed us from the law of sin and death, and he contrasted those who walk in the Spirit with those who have minds set on the flesh who are enemies of God who refuse to submit to the Law of God, so it should at least be word considering whether we need to die to the law of sin in order to be free to obey the Law of God or whether we need to die to the Law of God in order to be free to obey the law of sin.

In Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His children to determine that someone is a false prophet is if they speak against obeying the Torah, so if you agree that Paul was a servant of God, then you should be opposed to you interpreting as teaching to forsake the Torah, and if you think that Paul should be interpreted as teaching to forsake the Torah, then you should be opposed to you considering him to be a servant of God, but either way followers of Christ should follow the example of how to walk in obedience to the Torah that he set for his followers to follow (1 Peter 2:21-22).
 
Do you th4e politics of the mid-30's CE? You know, an era where Antipas and Aretas were actively fighting each other and Tiberius was involved in judging who was to be punished for the fighting?

Maybe you are unaware of Antipas's coinage, a topic often overlooked in Christian circles because it appears to contradict the official account, that appears to support Antipas being pro-Christian, specifically his minting from 33-4 CE. It is remotely possible that what is possible to be seen as an artifact, but that cannot be confirmed or denied unless the Israeli Artifacts authorities assist in the investigation, and the last I knew they were not cooperating.
Correction to my post #86:

*of why I find Hengel’s account unobjectionable.​


(Sometimes five minutes isn't long enough)

...
 
Services? Are you saying they had "services" such as what we see in modern churchianity? Just wondering.

MM

I grew up in a Jewish home.
We referred to it as services at the synagogue.

"Shabbat Morning Service."
"Shabbat Evening Service."
"Simchat Torah Festival Service with Yizkor."
"Sukkot Festival Service."

Etc....





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