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Time to do your homework: "That holy thing" refers to "the son of God", not the son of man.
That's usually where conception takes place, but the Holy Spirit didn't have sex with Mary. Your confused. You are reading into this text something that's not there.
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Mitspa
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Not in any literal sense that came from Him...But He did literally did become "sin" with our sin, on the Cross.
His work upon the cross was not symbolic but a real spiritual transfer of our sin upon Him. If symbolism would have worked, we would not have needed Him to suffer for our sin.... He really suffered for our real sins.
Jesus, as the son of man, became sin in the sense He assumed our ruined and condemned humanity indwelt by our selfishness and self-love, but Jesus as the son of man said no to sin every day of His life. Hence He was perfect in obedience. This satisfied the positive demands of God's law. But because He took us, in our fallen condition, that life had to died. Here Christ suffered the justice of the law, not for sinning, but because He assumed our humanity unfit for heaven. That old life died forever. In the resurrection Christ was raised with our fallen humanity. He was raised in a glorified, perfect humanity free from indwelling sin.
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Mitspa
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Dude...the scriptures say what they say...like it or not the Holy Spirit impregnated Mary...call it what you want...its evident!
So the Holy Spirit had sex with Mary? Wasn't Mary married? Now you are accusing the Holy Spirit of sin (adultery)....
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Mitspa
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Mitspa
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2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
1Pe 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
1Jo 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
Heb 4:15 for we have not a chief priest unable to sympathise with our weaknesses, but one tempted in all things in like manner--apart from sin;
1Pe 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
1Jo 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
Heb 4:15 for we have not a chief priest unable to sympathise with our weaknesses, but one tempted in all things in like manner--apart from sin;
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Mitspa
Guest
Lu 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest
shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
Lu 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Its clear the Holy Spirit impregnated Mary ...
Originally Posted by valiantJesus did not 'become sin' in any literal sense. He could not do so for He is wholly pure. He 'became sin' forensically in that our sin was accounted to Him. He was treated in all ways as a sinner. just as His righteousness is accounted to us and we are treated in all ways as righteous..
LOL you people love to use the word symbolism in order as you think to discredit your opponents without even knowing what symbolism means.
He did not LITERALLY become sin. He took the place of sinners. His death was REAL. His suffering for sin was REAL. But at no time was He touched by sin. GOD CANNOT BE TOUCHED BY SIN. Sin did not enter into Him. He 'became sin' by taking the sinner's place, not by anything that happened IN HIM.
His work on the cross was BOTH real and symbolic. It was real in that He suffered. It was real in that He bore the punishment of our sins on Himself. It was symbolic in that it revealed God's hatred of sin and His perfect righteousness through it. It was for ever a symbol of God's perfect justice. All who looked on it were made aware of the supreme justice of God. BOTH ASPECTS WERE VITAL.
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Mitspa
Guest
Were your just wrong...with or without the word symbolism ...He (Christ) literally took "sin" upon Himself and it was judged ...
Ro 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
IF it could have been judged symbolically ..why did He even need to suffer? That could have been done symbolically too?
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Mitspa
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2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
1Pe 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
1Jo 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
Heb 4:15 for we have not a chief priest unable to sympathise with our weaknesses, but one tempted in all things in like manner--apart from sin;
Roberth, because Jesus was fully God and fully man and due to that, was not conceived with the same sinful nature as man. So Jesus had no indwelling sin. God bless. 
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Mitspa
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What type of sin?
1] Transgression?
2] Indwelling sin, which isn't transgression or guilt, but a condition.
Christ knew no sin in that He didn't sin, but this doesn't deny He was tempted by our life that He assumed from Mary.
It is you, bubba Dude, who is presenting heresy. You would make a good catholic pope.
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