please answer 2 questions: 1, what do we determine makes a command a ceremonial law or not, and 2. who gets to determine this?
Thanks I can try.
#1....Keeping in mind the interpretation guide/law (2Corinthians 4:18 ) used in parables to hide the spiritual meaning from the unsaved natural man as those who do have the Spirit of Christ, the anointing Holy Spirit of God and the spiritual understanding is revealed to those who do have. This is so we can compare the spiritual to the spiritual not seen as a discipline of faith.
This understanding is that natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God, the Spirit of Christ for they are foolishness unto him: neither
can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. Jew and Gentile alike.
2Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.
Ceremonial laws are used in temporal ceremonies involving the coming of the flesh of Christ ,when he as the Son of man put on corrupted flesh typified as sinful for a temporal time period as an outward demonstration of the spiritual work of the Spirit. That work of the Spirit would be reckoned as a labor of His love or called a work of His faith, not seen. .
Every piece of furniture used in the ceremonies represented some to do with the coming of Christ in respect to the suffering beforehand as the way(singular) of Christ preaching the gospel in respect to His suffering beforehand. Just as we look back on this side of the reformation they looked ahead by faith (the unseen)
1Pe 1:11 Searching what, or what manner of time the “Spirit of Christ” which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.
Many today from my experience say they did not have the Spirit of Christ until the new testament. Which I believe is a error
Not all were given the Spirit of Christ knowing if any man Jew or Gentile has not the Holy Spirit then neither could they belong to Christ. It is not a new testament principle that cannot be applied to any believer. Abel believed God and it was counted as righteousness in respect to that imputed work of Christ.
Romans 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
He came to his own and his own received him not because it did not fit ideology of the Jewish fathers, Christ’s nemesis.
Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. 1John 4:2
The veil as shadow of good things to come was the means of keeping the way into the presence of God from other nations until the time of reformation.
By a
new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
I believe that helps to give us his understanding so that we do not have to lean on our own or that of other men. Seeing we no longer have an outward represented used as a shadow of the coming of Christ. this is in keeping the interpretation law found in 2Corinthians 4:18 .
The word figure below is the word parable.
The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing:Which was a "figure" for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience;Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them "until" the time of reformation. Hebrews 10:20
#2..... The Spirit of Christ, the Holy Spirit of God gets to determine it.