How do I know which Bible is the right one?

[Thaddaeus]

Use of the KJV doesn't prevent false doctrine. The JW's use the KJV as well but look at them. Do you know why JW's use the KJV ? Because it omits the deity of Christ:

John 14:14:

The KJV says:

"If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it". Which has omitted "me".

The NIV correctly says:
"You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it".
​

Shall we start calling the KJV a perversion now? Obviously the KJV has serious errors and words omitted. More accurate than the NIV? Not with John 14:14 it isn't.

​

whoaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa!! snail I don't know where you get your information at. But I for one am getting fed up with your false information that you post in here, and your lies and as well as your attack on the Word of God, if you mean Jehova Witnesses when you say JW's. They do not use the King James They have their own translation called the New World translation, it takes out the Cross from scriptures, they teach that Jesus died on the torture stake .

John 14:14:

The KJV says:

"If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it". Which has omitted "me".

The NIV correctly says:
"You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it".
​

and as far as this you again are far from the truth as well as the Niv,
the King James is the most accurate here for the Bible teaches that we ask the Father, and through Jesus the Father hears and gives:

Joh 16:23And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ASK THE FATHER in my name, he will give it you.

so let's look and see which one of the translations agrees with itself within it's own scriptures,,


the NIV steps up and adds me to John 14:14 stating that we should ask Jesus for things But if you look at surrrounding verses Jesus says that He will pray/ ask the Father, so should" me " had been added in here or Not? I think Not according to the contents.


<H2 id=passage_heading>John 14:14 (New International Version)

14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.

</H2><H2 id=passage_heading>John 14:12-16 (New International Version)


12I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it. Jesus Promises the Holy Spirit

15"If you love me, you will obey what I command. 16And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever&#8212;

so who does the Bible say that we should ask "if you do these things I do" 16And I will ask the Father!!!!!!!!!!
</H2> I left it a little big snail so you could see where you lied about this trying to make the Authorized Version look bad, this is real bad on your part. now see if this is more right if you put it in contents



John 14:12-16 (King James Version)



12Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
13And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
14If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.
15If ye love me, keep my commandments. 16And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;

should we ask Jesus (me) as the NiV has added or ask The Father in my name?????????? in that Jesus will ask the Father, Bad example dude try again if you wish

 

[Nuhen]

The NIV is no more horrible than the KJV. The problem with both of these translations is that they are translations OF translations, rather than direct translations of the original manuscript.

Any translation that translates from another translation is going to have issues.

Furthermore, the King James Version was translated by King James I, who was a homosexual. I would be wary of any translation of G-d's Word made by a person living a lifestyle of sin and abomination.

 

[MahogonySnail]

Thaddeus if you know anything about JW's, .. you would know they use the KJV as well. They really like the KJV too because it is the easiest version to use to prove some of their beliefs.



Here's a list of some of the KJV errors which totally disproves your claim that the KJV is somehow better than other translations:

Translation Errors​

Here is a partial listing of King James Version translation errors:
Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form . . . ." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition, as in Genesis 19:26.
Genesis 10:9 should read " . . . Nimrod the mighty hunter in place of [in opposition to] the LORD." The word "before" is incorrect and gives the connotation that Nimrod was a good guy, which is false.
Leviticus 16:8, 10, 26 in the KJV is "scapegoat" which today has the connotation of someone who is unjustly blamed for other?s sins. The Hebrew is Azazel, which means "one removed or separated." The Azazel goal represents Satan, who is no scapegoat. He is guilty of his part in our sins.
Deuteronomy 24:1, "then let him" should be "and he." As the Savior explained in Matthew 19, Moses did not command divorcement. This statute is regulating the permission of divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.
II Kings 2:23, should be "young men," not "little children."
Isaiah 65:17 should be "I am creating [am about to create] new heavens and new earth . . . ."
Ezekiel 20:25 should read "Wherefore I permitted them, or gave them over to, [false] statutes that are not good, and judgments whereby they should not live." God?s laws are good, perfect and right. This verse shows that since Israel rejected God?s laws, He allowed them to hurt themselves by following false man made customs and laws.
Daniel 8:14 is correct in the margin, which substitutes "evening morning" for "days." Too bad William Miller didn?t realize this.
Malachi 4:6 should read " . . . lest I come and smite the earth with utter destruction." "Curse" doesn?t give the proper sense here. Same word used in Zechariah 14:11.
Matthew 5:48 should be "Become ye therefore perfect" rather than "be ye therefore perfect." "Perfect" here means "spiritually mature." Sanctification is a process of overcoming with the aid of the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 24:22 needs an additional word to clarify the meaning. It should say "there should no flesh be saved alive."
Matthew 27:49 omits text which was in the original. Moffatt correctly adds it, while the RSV puts it in a footnote: "And another took a spear and pierced His side, and out came water and blood." The Savior?s death came when a soldier pierced His side, Revelation 1:7.
Matthew 28:1, "In the end of the sabbath as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week . . ." should be translated literally, "Now late on Sabbath, as it was getting dusk toward the first day of the week . . . ." The Sabbath does not end at dawn but at dusk.
Luke 2:14 should say, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men of God?s good pleasure or choosing." That is, there will be peace on earth among men who have God?s good will in their hearts.
Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo, Strong?s #3404, as "hate," when it should be rendered "love less by comparison." We are not to hate our parents and family!
John 1:31, 33 should say "baptize" or "baptizing IN water" not with water. Pouring or sprinkling with water is not the scriptural method of baptism, but only thorough immersion in water.
John 1:17 is another instance of a poor preposition. "By" should be "through": "For the law was given by [through] Moses . . . ." Moses did not proclaim his law, but God?s Law.
John 13:2 should be "And during supper" (RSV) rather than "And supper being ended" (KJV).
Acts 12:4 has the inaccurate word "Easter" which should be rendered "Passover." The Greek word is pascha which is translated correctly as Passover in Matthew 26:2, etc.
I Corinthians 1:18 should be: "For the preaching of the cross is to them that are perishing foolishness; but unto us which are being saved it is the power of God," rather than "perish" and "are saved." Likewise, II Thessalonians 2:10 should be "are perishing" rather than "perish."
I Corinthians 15:29 should be: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the hope of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the hope of the dead?"
II Corinthians 6:2 should be "a day of salvation," instead of "the day of salvation." This is a quote from Isaiah 49:8, which is correct. The day of salvation is not the same for each individual. The firstfruits have their day of salvation during this life. The rest in the second resurrection.
I Timothy 4:8 should say, "For bodily exercise profiteth for a little time: but godliness in profitable unto all things . . . ."
I Timothy 6:10 should be, "For the love of money is a [not the] root of all evil . . . ."
Hebrews 4:8 should be "Joshua" rather than "Jesus," although these two words are Hebrew and Greek equivalents.
Hebrews 4:9 should read, "There remaineth therefore a keeping of a sabbath to the people of God."
Hebrews 9:28 is out of proper order in the King James. It should be: "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them without sin that look for him shall he appear the second time unto salvation."
I John 5:7-8 contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one."
The lined-through text in the above passage was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the unscriptural trinity doctrine. In this they are correct.
Revelation 14:4 should be "a firstfruits," because the 144,000 are not all the firstfruits.
Revelation 20:4-5 in the KJV is a little confusing until you realize that the sentence "This is the first resurrection." in verse five refers back to "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in verse four.
Revelation 20:10, "And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are [correction: should be ?were cast? because the beast and false prophet were mortal human beings who were burned up in the lake of fire 1,000 years previous to this time, Revelation 19:20], and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." The point is that Satan will be cast into the same lake of fire into which the beast and false prophet were cast a thousand years previously.
Revelation 22:2 should be "health" rather than "healing."

 

[HumbleSaint]

The NIV is no more horrible than the KJV. The problem with both of these translations is that they are translations OF translations, rather than direct translations of the original manuscript.

Any translation that translates from another translation is going to have issues.

Furthermore, the King James Version was translated by King James I, who was a homosexual. I would be wary of any translation of G-d's Word made by a person living a lifestyle of sin and abomination.

King James had a wife, he was not a homosexual. You having given into this new age lie. Are you also going to believe these false doctrines if they say that Jesus never came to be the Messiah?

 

[Nuhen]

King James had a wife, he was not a homosexual. You having given into this new age lie. Are you also going to believe these false doctrines if they say that Jesus never came to be the Messiah?

It's not a "new age lie", it's history. He may have been married, but he had numerous love affairs with male courtiers.

And I most certainly believe Yeshua was the Messiah.

 

[HumbleSaint]

Snail the love of money is not a root of all evil it is the root of all evil. If it was a root that would mean that there would be more than one root. But all evil evolves around money.

Televagelist lie about God's Word for money

Judas betrayed Jesus for Money

Rock musicians give their soul to the Devil for money.

And the list goes on.

I'm not sure where in the world you are getting your information from.

 

[Nuhen]

Televagelist lie about God's Word for money

Rock musicians give their soul to the Devil for money.

Seems like an awfully large generalization. I thought only G-d could judge the heart?

Judas betrayed Jesus for Money

Incorrect. Judas betrayed Yeshua because G-d made him betray Yeshua. Money just happened to be involved.

 

[MahogonySnail]

Everything's not about money HumbleSaint... there are many dfiferent kinds of roots of evil. What was the root of evil for adam and eve? You can't tell me it's money. Gotcha .

There are about two full A4 pages that could be written of KJV translation ERRORS. Another one is in the old testament where it says that two turtles should be offered.. Turtles? those green or grey hard shelled animals? No.. they meant turtle doves..the bird.

I often find the KJV fails to capitalise the s in Spirit..referring to God's Sprit, which makes it confusing when you're trying to figure out which spirit it's referring to.

There's quite a few failings in the KJV which is why they decided to make a NKJV or MKJV which has corrected most of the errors.

All in all, the KJV is NOT a better translation than other versions..and for a new believer is often more confusing.

God is not the author of confusion. And if the KJV is confusion....

 

[HumbleSaint]

It's not a "new age lie", it's history. He may have been married, but he had numerous love affairs with male courtiers.

And I most certainly believe Yeshua was the Messiah.

What kind of God do you think that we serve that would have allowed a homosexual to translate the only authorized Bible the English speaking people had for 350 years.

 

[Nuhen]

What kind of God do you think that we serve that would have allowed a homosexual to translate the only authorized Bible the English speaking people had for 350 years.

The same G-d that apparently allowed non-canonical books into the bible before Martin Luther (1483-1546).

 

[Thaddaeus]

The NIV is no more horrible than the KJV. The problem with both of these translations is that they are translations OF translations, rather than direct translations of the original manuscript.

Any translation that translates from another translation is going to have issues.

Furthermore, the King James Version was translated by King James I, who was a homosexual. I would be wary of any translation of G-d's Word made by a person living a lifestyle of sin and abomination.

Furthermore, the King James Version was translated by King James I, who was a homosexual. I would be wary of any translation of G-d's Word made by a person living a lifestyle of sin and abomination.[/

people just put anything they want to on here without ever checking their sourses or do you all do these lies on purpose thinking that everyone else in here are all dummies?

King James's only part in translating the Bible known as the King James 1611, was that he gave the creed/order or in other words He okayed it being translated. He did not have any other part in the actually translation of the manuscripts to english. and furter more if you truely mean

I would be wary of any translation of G-d's Word made by a person living a lifestyle of sin and abomination

then you might want to do a background search on the translators of the NIV. here I am not saying that i have prove any of this web site , but merely trying to show that we can find anything we want on the web so sink your teeth into this one ;
http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Bible/niv_sodomite.htm

Dr. Marten Woudstra, Sodomite, Homosexual, and Chairman of the NIV Old Testament Committee!​

The NIV, New International Translation, is straight out of the pits of Hell. The man appointed to be the Chairman of the Old Testament Committee of the NIV Committee on Bible Translation, Dr. Marten Woudstra, was a homosexual. Also, Virginia Mollenkott, who worked as the stylistic editor for the translation, is a lesbian. Some of Dr. Woudsta's collaborators on the NIV knew about this years ago during the translation process.
If this is not convincing enough that the NIV is straight from Hell, then consider this--The parent company (Harper Collins) who publishes the NIV, also publishes The Joy of Gay Sex, and The Satanic Bible. It doesn't take a whole lot of common sense to figure this out folks. The NIV is evil and corrupt. Furthermore, the NIV is based upon the work of two of the biggest heretics and occultists of all time--Westcott and Hort. Westcott himself was one of the founders of the Cambridge Ghost Society. Westcott and Hort were psychic Ghost Hunters. Not to mention that the NIV was translated from the corrupted Alexandrian Greek texts.

 

[MahogonySnail]

You forgot to mention that King James was probably a freemason.

 

[HumbleSaint]

Everything's not about money HumbleSaint... there are many dfiferent kinds of roots of evil. What was the root of evil for adam and eve? You can't tell me it's money. Gotcha .

There are about two full A4 pages that could be written of KJV translation ERRORS. Another one is in the old testament where it says that two turtles should be offered.. Turtles? those green or grey hard shelled animals? No.. they meant turtle doves..the bird.

I often find the KJV fails to capitalise the s in Spirit..referring to God's Sprit, which makes it confusing when you're trying to figure out which spirit it's referring to.

There's quite a few failings in the KJV which is why they decided to make a NKJV or MKJV which has corrected most of the errors.

The Garden of Eden was before money even existed, But the devil told them if they took it they should be as gods. Is that not true with money all these Godless heathens from hollywood are like little gods they can buy their way out of almost any trouble they get into. But everything only has one root. An apple tree only has one root---it stemes in many directions, but it only has one root. There are many other of those differences I could pick at but I'll let them go.

The NIV says the Spirit in many places, but the KJV says the Holy Spirit, The NIV takes the blood of Christ out different times and it is by His blood we are sanctified. The NIV ommits numerous verses and the Bible says some serious things about this at the end of Revelation.

 

[asamanthinketh]

ONE THAT YOU ARE ABLE TO READ

THERE ARE SO MANY AVAILALBE NOW

IF YOU GO INTO A CHRISTIAN BOOKSTORE AND TELL THEM WHAT YOU ARE LOOKING FOR THEY COULD POINT CERTAIN BIBLES OUT TO YOU AND MAKE SUGGESTIONS, AFTER ALL THAT IS THEIR EXPERTISE USUALLY

IN SOME HOMES, SCHOOLS, COUNTRIES THEY DO NOT ALLOW THE BIBLE SO KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING COME IN A DIFFERENT FORM

 

[Nuhen]

people just put anything they want to on here without ever checking their sourses or do you all do these lies on purpose thinking that everyone else in here are all dummies?

I check, check, check, counter check, and recheck all sources before using them to support my claims. I can even give you the names of some of the male courtiers he had homosexual relations with.

Not only that, but he was a philanderer - had affairs with other women besides his wife - and was, as Snail pointed out, a Freemason.

King James's only part in translating the Bible known as the King James 1611, was that he gave the creed/order or in other words He okayed it being translated. He did not have any other part in the actually translation of the manuscripts to english.

Actually, he did. He reviewed the manuscripts and told them what to do.

then you might want to do a background search on the translators of the NIV. here I am not saying that i have prove any of this web site , but merely trying to show that we can find anything we want on the web so sink your teeth into this one

I don't use the NIV, so this is irrelevant.

 

[Thaddaeus]

Thaddeus if you know anything about JW's, .. you would know they use the KJV as well. They really like the KJV too because it is the easiest version to use to prove some of their beliefs.



Here's a list of some of the KJV errors which totally disproves your claim that the KJV is somehow better than other translations:

Translation Errors​

Here is a partial listing of King James Version translation errors:
Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form . . . ." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition, as in Genesis 19:26.
Genesis 10:9 should read " . . . Nimrod the mighty hunter in place of [in opposition to] the LORD." The word "before" is incorrect and gives the connotation that Nimrod was a good guy, which is false.
Leviticus 16:8, 10, 26 in the KJV is "scapegoat" which today has the connotation of someone who is unjustly blamed for other?s sins. The Hebrew is Azazel, which means "one removed or separated." The Azazel goal represents Satan, who is no scapegoat. He is guilty of his part in our sins.
Deuteronomy 24:1, "then let him" should be "and he." As the Savior explained in Matthew 19, Moses did not command divorcement. This statute is regulating the permission of divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.
II Kings 2:23, should be "young men," not "little children."
Isaiah 65:17 should be "I am creating [am about to create] new heavens and new earth . . . ."
Ezekiel 20:25 should read "Wherefore I permitted them, or gave them over to, [false] statutes that are not good, and judgments whereby they should not live." God?s laws are good, perfect and right. This verse shows that since Israel rejected God?s laws, He allowed them to hurt themselves by following false man made customs and laws.
Daniel 8:14 is correct in the margin, which substitutes "evening morning" for "days." Too bad William Miller didn?t realize this.
Malachi 4:6 should read " . . . lest I come and smite the earth with utter destruction." "Curse" doesn?t give the proper sense here. Same word used in Zechariah 14:11.
Matthew 5:48 should be "Become ye therefore perfect" rather than "be ye therefore perfect." "Perfect" here means "spiritually mature." Sanctification is a process of overcoming with the aid of the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 24:22 needs an additional word to clarify the meaning. It should say "there should no flesh be saved alive."
Matthew 27:49 omits text which was in the original. Moffatt correctly adds it, while the RSV puts it in a footnote: "And another took a spear and pierced His side, and out came water and blood." The Savior?s death came when a soldier pierced His side, Revelation 1:7.
Matthew 28:1, "In the end of the sabbath as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week . . ." should be translated literally, "Now late on Sabbath, as it was getting dusk toward the first day of the week . . . ." The Sabbath does not end at dawn but at dusk.
Luke 2:14 should say, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men of God?s good pleasure or choosing." That is, there will be peace on earth among men who have God?s good will in their hearts.
Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo, Strong?s #3404, as "hate," when it should be rendered "love less by comparison." We are not to hate our parents and family!
John 1:31, 33 should say "baptize" or "baptizing IN water" not with water. Pouring or sprinkling with water is not the scriptural method of baptism, but only thorough immersion in water.
John 1:17 is another instance of a poor preposition. "By" should be "through": "For the law was given by [through] Moses . . . ." Moses did not proclaim his law, but God?s Law.
John 13:2 should be "And during supper" (RSV) rather than "And supper being ended" (KJV).
Acts 12:4 has the inaccurate word "Easter" which should be rendered "Passover." The Greek word is pascha which is translated correctly as Passover in Matthew 26:2, etc.
I Corinthians 1:18 should be: "For the preaching of the cross is to them that are perishing foolishness; but unto us which are being saved it is the power of God," rather than "perish" and "are saved." Likewise, II Thessalonians 2:10 should be "are perishing" rather than "perish."
I Corinthians 15:29 should be: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the hope of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the hope of the dead?"
II Corinthians 6:2 should be "a day of salvation," instead of "the day of salvation." This is a quote from Isaiah 49:8, which is correct. The day of salvation is not the same for each individual. The firstfruits have their day of salvation during this life. The rest in the second resurrection.
I Timothy 4:8 should say, "For bodily exercise profiteth for a little time: but godliness in profitable unto all things . . . ."
I Timothy 6:10 should be, "For the love of money is a [not the] root of all evil . . . ."
Hebrews 4:8 should be "Joshua" rather than "Jesus," although these two words are Hebrew and Greek equivalents.
Hebrews 4:9 should read, "There remaineth therefore a keeping of a sabbath to the people of God."
Hebrews 9:28 is out of proper order in the King James. It should be: "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them without sin that look for him shall he appear the second time unto salvation."
I John 5:7-8 contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one."
The lined-through text in the above passage was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the unscriptural trinity doctrine. In this they are correct.
Revelation 14:4 should be "a firstfruits," because the 144,000 are not all the firstfruits.
Revelation 20:4-5 in the KJV is a little confusing until you realize that the sentence "This is the first resurrection." in verse five refers back to "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in verse four.
Revelation 20:10, "And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are [correction: should be ?were cast? because the beast and false prophet were mortal human beings who were burned up in the lake of fire 1,000 years previous to this time, Revelation 19:20], and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." The point is that Satan will be cast into the same lake of fire into which the beast and false prophet were cast a thousand years previously.
Revelation 22:2 should be "health" rather than "healing."

I have jw's as neighbors, we took a Jw in the live with us shortly , when her parents kicked here out for dating a christian. the only book these that I know use is the new world translation, sorry do we have any jw's or anyone else that might be able to clear this up for us???

 

[Thaddaeus]

Thaddeus if you know anything about JW's, .. you would know they use the KJV as well. They really like the KJV too because it is the easiest version to use to prove some of their beliefs.



Here's a list of some of the KJV errors which totally disproves your claim that the KJV is somehow better than other translations:

Translation Errors​

Here is a partial listing of King James Version translation errors:
Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form . . . ." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition, as in Genesis 19:26.
Genesis 10:9 should read " . . . Nimrod the mighty hunter in place of [in opposition to] the LORD." The word "before" is incorrect and gives the connotation that Nimrod was a good guy, which is false.
Leviticus 16:8, 10, 26 in the KJV is "scapegoat" which today has the connotation of someone who is unjustly blamed for other?s sins. The Hebrew is Azazel, which means "one removed or separated." The Azazel goal represents Satan, who is no scapegoat. He is guilty of his part in our sins.
Deuteronomy 24:1, "then let him" should be "and he." As the Savior explained in Matthew 19, Moses did not command divorcement. This statute is regulating the permission of divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.
II Kings 2:23, should be "young men," not "little children."
Isaiah 65:17 should be "I am creating [am about to create] new heavens and new earth . . . ."
Ezekiel 20:25 should read "Wherefore I permitted them, or gave them over to, [false] statutes that are not good, and judgments whereby they should not live." God?s laws are good, perfect and right. This verse shows that since Israel rejected God?s laws, He allowed them to hurt themselves by following false man made customs and laws.
Daniel 8:14 is correct in the margin, which substitutes "evening morning" for "days." Too bad William Miller didn?t realize this.
Malachi 4:6 should read " . . . lest I come and smite the earth with utter destruction." "Curse" doesn?t give the proper sense here. Same word used in Zechariah 14:11.
Matthew 5:48 should be "Become ye therefore perfect" rather than "be ye therefore perfect." "Perfect" here means "spiritually mature." Sanctification is a process of overcoming with the aid of the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 24:22 needs an additional word to clarify the meaning. It should say "there should no flesh be saved alive."
Matthew 27:49 omits text which was in the original. Moffatt correctly adds it, while the RSV puts it in a footnote: "And another took a spear and pierced His side, and out came water and blood." The Savior?s death came when a soldier pierced His side, Revelation 1:7.
Matthew 28:1, "In the end of the sabbath as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week . . ." should be translated literally, "Now late on Sabbath, as it was getting dusk toward the first day of the week . . . ." The Sabbath does not end at dawn but at dusk.
Luke 2:14 should say, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men of God?s good pleasure or choosing." That is, there will be peace on earth among men who have God?s good will in their hearts.
Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo, Strong?s #3404, as "hate," when it should be rendered "love less by comparison." We are not to hate our parents and family!
John 1:31, 33 should say "baptize" or "baptizing IN water" not with water. Pouring or sprinkling with water is not the scriptural method of baptism, but only thorough immersion in water.
John 1:17 is another instance of a poor preposition. "By" should be "through": "For the law was given by [through] Moses . . . ." Moses did not proclaim his law, but God?s Law.
John 13:2 should be "And during supper" (RSV) rather than "And supper being ended" (KJV).
Acts 12:4 has the inaccurate word "Easter" which should be rendered "Passover." The Greek word is pascha which is translated correctly as Passover in Matthew 26:2, etc.
I Corinthians 1:18 should be: "For the preaching of the cross is to them that are perishing foolishness; but unto us which are being saved it is the power of God," rather than "perish" and "are saved." Likewise, II Thessalonians 2:10 should be "are perishing" rather than "perish."
I Corinthians 15:29 should be: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the hope of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the hope of the dead?"
II Corinthians 6:2 should be "a day of salvation," instead of "the day of salvation." This is a quote from Isaiah 49:8, which is correct. The day of salvation is not the same for each individual. The firstfruits have their day of salvation during this life. The rest in the second resurrection.
I Timothy 4:8 should say, "For bodily exercise profiteth for a little time: but godliness in profitable unto all things . . . ."
I Timothy 6:10 should be, "For the love of money is a [not the] root of all evil . . . ."
Hebrews 4:8 should be "Joshua" rather than "Jesus," although these two words are Hebrew and Greek equivalents.
Hebrews 4:9 should read, "There remaineth therefore a keeping of a sabbath to the people of God."
Hebrews 9:28 is out of proper order in the King James. It should be: "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them without sin that look for him shall he appear the second time unto salvation."
I John 5:7-8 contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one."
The lined-through text in the above passage was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the unscriptural trinity doctrine. In this they are correct.
Revelation 14:4 should be "a firstfruits," because the 144,000 are not all the firstfruits.
Revelation 20:4-5 in the KJV is a little confusing until you realize that the sentence "This is the first resurrection." in verse five refers back to "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in verse four.
Revelation 20:10, "And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are [correction: should be ?were cast? because the beast and false prophet were mortal human beings who were burned up in the lake of fire 1,000 years previous to this time, Revelation 19:20], and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." The point is that Satan will be cast into the same lake of fire into which the beast and false prophet were cast a thousand years previously.
Revelation 22:2 should be "health" rather than "healing."

any one can take a verse here and there and twist it and say that it is wrong we have to know, the contents of said verse, I am shocked that you would even try such a tactic

 

[Thaddaeus]

snail are you confusing the Jw as far as using the KJB with the Mormans????

 

[HumbleSaint]

When I first came to the Lord around six months ago I started using the NKJV and then I found out that the KJV was more accurate. And it seemed as soon as I started reading the KJV it seemed like the Holy Spirit started imediatly helping me understand it better and I was able to memorize some passages just by reading over it several times. It is amazing. Then it hit me, if the Lord despises those other translations than I don't see how I could gain an understanding of them.

 

[Nuhen]

When I first came to the Lord around six months ago I started using the NKJV and then I found out that the KJV was more accurate. And it seemed as soon as I started reading the KJV it seemed like the Holy Spirit started imediatly helping me understand it better and I was able to memorize some passages just by reading over it several times. It is amazing. Then it hit me, if the Lord despises those other translations than I don't see how I could gain an understanding of them.

You do realize other people have that same experience with other translations, right?

For example, I use The Complete Jewish Bible (and as far as the Tanakh goes, the CJB is the MOST accurate), and once I started using it, I had the same experience you had above.