.
The Hebrew word translated "the Lord" in that passage is Yehovah-- a.k.a.
Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh --which is a phonetic way of pronouncing the four
letter tetragrammaton YHVH.
According to 2Pet 1:16-18, the voice was audible, i.e. heard by Peter and his
friends with their own ears. That being the case, then I have to assume it
was Jehovah doing what he has always done since the very beginning, to
wit: speaking as the Father and speaking for the Father. (cf. Matt 3:16)
NOTE: I strongly suspect that new arrivals in Heaven are whisked away to a
sort of Bible camp where their mistakes are corrected, and all the blanks
filled in, so that when they're released into general population there will be
no quarrelling and no debating.
_
Could you please explain who the speaker was at Exodus 20:22? "Then the
Lord said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, "You
yourselves have seen that I have spoken to you from heaven."
Lord said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, "You
yourselves have seen that I have spoken to you from heaven."
Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh --which is a phonetic way of pronouncing the four
letter tetragrammaton YHVH.
Also, who is the speaker in the New Testament at Mark 1:11? "and a voice
came out of the heavens; "Thou art My beloved Son, in Thee I am well
pleased.
came out of the heavens; "Thou art My beloved Son, in Thee I am well
pleased.
friends with their own ears. That being the case, then I have to assume it
was Jehovah doing what he has always done since the very beginning, to
wit: speaking as the Father and speaking for the Father. (cf. Matt 3:16)
NOTE: I strongly suspect that new arrivals in Heaven are whisked away to a
sort of Bible camp where their mistakes are corrected, and all the blanks
filled in, so that when they're released into general population there will be
no quarrelling and no debating.
_