I looked at his website you gave me. I looked at 60 of his teachings. The word "faith" wasn't used once in any title.
Is Knowledge of the Original Languages Necessary for KJV Believers?
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I looked at his website you gave me. I looked at 60 of his teachings. The word "faith" wasn't used once in any title.
A few things need to be addressed.
(1) You changed the wording of 1 Corinthians 5:3. The KJV does not say "as present in spirit" in the second clause. It says "as though I were present." The Greek in Beza 1598 is:
Ἐγὼ μὲν γὰρ ὡς ἀπὼν τῷ σώματι, παρὼν δὲ τῷ πνεύματι, ἤδη κέκρικα ὡς παρὼν
The second ὡς παρών has no τῷ πνεύματι attached to it. Paul already said he was "present in spirit." The second phrase adds something different: he judged as though he were present, meaning bodily present, which is the very thing he said he was not. To make your reading work, you had to add "in spirit" to a clause that does not contain it.
This isn't a matter of which Greek text you prefer, either. The second clause reads the same in the Textus Receptus, the Byzantine text, and the Nestle-Aland text: ἤδη κέκρικα ὡς παρών, with nothing after παρών. I'm not aware of any Greek edition that reads "as present in spirit" there.
The only major English version I found that leans toward your reading is the NIV, which says "As one who is present with you in this way." Notice that the words "in this way" are not in the Greek. The NIV had to supply them to turn ὡς παρών into a real spiritual presence, which is the same move you made. Nearly every other major English version reads it the other way: "as though I were present" (KJV, NKJV, NASB, HCSB), "as if present" (ESV), "just as if I were present" (BSB), "as though I were present with you" (ISV), and "just as though I were present" (NET). Translators from different textual and translation camps agree that Paul judged as though he were present, not that he was present in a second, separate sense.
(2) Your "while" reading of ὡς does not fit this construction. Temporal ὡς ("when, while, as soon as") normally goes with a finite verb, as in Luke 1:23. Here ὡς goes with a participle referring to the subject, which is the category LSJ gives under C.I: "as if, as." If you read the second clause as "while present," Paul contradicts himself, since he just said he was absent in body. The only way out is to supply "in spirit," which brings us back to point (1).
If your "while" comes from a Strong's-style definition, keep in mind that Strong's lists every way the KJV renders ὡς anywhere in the Bible. "When" and "while" are on that list, but so are "about," "like," "even as," and many others. A list of possible glosses doesn't tell us which one fits this verse. The grammar of the sentence does.
(3) You're right that I didn't quote verses 4 and 5. I did not see them as relevant to helping your case. However, let me address them. Verse 4 joins together "my spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ." Paul's spirit takes part in the judgment of one congregation, and Christ's power is what makes it effective. That fits what I said, that Paul participated through his apostolic judgment. Paul never claims to be in the midst of every gathering everywhere. Jesus does. "Where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them" applies to any gathering, in any place, at the same time. No creature can keep that promise. Paul's statement concerns one church at Corinth. Jesus' statement concerns all of them. They are not the same kind of claim.
(4) Verse 5 doesn't help your case either. It tells us what the judgment was, delivering the man unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh. It says nothing about Paul's spirit traveling to Corinth or being present in any literal way. The only verses that speak to Paul's presence are 3 and 4, and verse 3 qualifies it with "as though I were present."
(5) Ephesians 2:6 does not help your case. We are seated in heavenly places "in Christ Jesus," meaning our position depends on our union with Him. That union exists because He dwells in us: "Christ in you, the hope of glory" (Colossians 1:27). Jesus said, "If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him" (John 14:23). The Son promises to dwell with every believer who loves Him, wherever they are. That is the very presence I am pointing to, and it is not something Paul ever claimed for himself.
(6) Saying Matthew 18:20 describes a future condition does not change the argument. The question is not when the promise applies but what kind of presence it describes. If it applies after the ascension, then the risen Christ, bodily in heaven, is in the midst of believers gathered all over the earth at once. That makes the point stronger, not weaker. Jesus also said, "lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (Matthew 28:20).
(7) On John 3:13, the text itself shows these are Jesus' words. Verse 12 is Jesus speaking: "If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?" Verse 13 continues with καί and explains why He can speak of heavenly things. Verse 14 then says, "even so must the Son of man be lifted up." In John 12:34 the crowd answers Jesus by quoting His own saying back to Him: "how sayest thou, The Son of man must be lifted up?" The Greek there, δεῖ ὑψωθῆναι τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, matches John 3:14. The crowd attributes this saying to Jesus, not to John. "Son of man" is also Jesus' own way of referring to Himself throughout the Gospels.
(8) John 20:17 concerns His bodily ascension after the resurrection. The phrase ὁ ὢν ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ ("which is in heaven") is a present participle describing what the Son of man is, not a trip He took. John uses the same construction in John 1:18: ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρός, "which is in the bosom of the Father." While walking the earth in the flesh, the Son was never absent from the Father. Even if you insist verse 13 is John's commentary, it still says the Son of man came down from heaven and is in heaven, which you would still have to account for.
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Well, your approach to the Bible is overly simplistic to the point of distorting the biblical text. I am not the person who refuses to look at information that may challenge my own position; Especially when it deals with moral issues that should be obvious if your moral compass is even working at even low power. You cannot even see the moral problem I present. So carry on in not looking at information (like Scripture) that may correct your belief. By all means, go ahead believe dumb and immoral things. That's your choice. Don't say I didn't warn you.
I mean, you wouldn't be the first self professing Christian who I have ran into who thinks in such irrational way.
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And this is why you have no spiritual discernment. You cannot see the heretics, the false doctrines, the false lies in the Modern Bible Movement you are involved in. It all just means nothing or does not matter. Just give it that hand wave. Say, "Nothing to see here." all while fireworks and explosions go off behind you. I am sure the Lord Jesus will be very happy that you ignore such problems when they are very serious. Believers in your movement have lost their faith in Jesus because of the inherent false teachings from within it. But you can just say that does not mean anything, either. You can just act like that does not happen, when it does.
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Just heard him teach recently and exegete the word used for faith.
He does not teach isolated word studies.
He taught passages and books in the Bible, line upon line.
When 'faith' appears in a verse, when needed, he would give a breakdown and even a history of the word's usage.
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