Hey , I resemble that remarkIs it the understanding of Greek-speaking scholars who live and teach in Greece?
The objective standard is not my interpretation, your interpretation, the KJV translators, modern scholars in Greece, or any particular lexicon.You are not giving me any kind of objective standard, either. What standard are you using to determine what these words actually mean? Is it the understanding of the KJV translators? Is it the understanding of Greek-speaking scholars who live and teach in Greece? Is it the historical testimony of Greek and English lexicons? Or is it simply your own interpretation, along with that of others who belong to a movement influenced by German Rationalism, which has encouraged doubt rather than faith in Scripture?
The objective standard is the text itself in its context, with Scripture interpreting Scripture.
Lexicons and translators can be useful tools, but they are not inspired.
The KJV translators themselves would not have claimed infallibility for their explanations.
Likewise, the fact that I speak modern Greek does not automatically make me an authority on Koine Greek any more than speaking modern English makes someone an authority on Shakespearean English.
The real question is whether your interpretation can be demonstrated from the text, not whether you can cite authorities who agree with it.