Corrupt Doctrines in Modern Bibles:
#1. In Deuteronomy 22:28-29, several Modern Bibles such as the NIV and CSB dangerously teach that a woman must marry her rapist. The CSB, for example, says, “He must marry the young woman he has raped.” There are Christians who actually believe this. Even atheists love to criticize the Bible by bringing up this ridiculous reading Modern Bibles.
#2. Certain Modern Bibles in Philippians 2:7 change doctrine by adding ideas that are not found in the Greek text. Now, the rendering “emptied himself” is not incorrect in many Modern versions, since the Greek ἐκένωσε fundamentally means “emptied” or “made empty” in Stephanus’ lexicon. ᴰ⁻¹ The expression is figurative, and the following words explain how Christ emptied Himself: by “taking the form of a servant.” The KJV expresses this figurative meaning as “made himself of no reputation,” meaning that Christ willingly made Himself of no account by assuming the lowly position of a servant. The error occurs when Modern Bibles go beyond the Greek and say that Christ “gave up his divine privileges” (NLT) or “gave up everything” (CEV) “gave up all he had” (GNT) or “stripped Himself of His glory.” Christ did not cease to be God or surrender His divine attributes. He humbled Himself by taking the form of a servant. There are many verses I can give that refer to how Jesus had and used His own divine power of His own as the second person of the Trinity. Yet, in the Modern Bible Movement, I have talked with many who hold to the view that the NLT expresses.
#3. The false demigod Jesus view (i.e., the wrong belief that Jesus did not exist eternally in the past) is wrongfully promoted in certain Modern bibles (AMP, AMPC, LSB, NASB1995, NTE). John 1:18 "the only begotten Son" (KJB) is wrongfully changed to “The only begotten God.” ᴬ⁻¹ But God is not begotten. God is eternal. In addition, Micah 5:2 in Modern Bibles changes the eternal nature of Christ that says: “from everlasting” to “from ancient times” or “from ancient days” or “distant past.” This, again, is an attack upon the eternal nature of God or Jesus Christ. The Family 35 NT based on Byzantine MSS says that Jesus becomes the I AM in Revelation 21:6 (See here). Even the ECM has changed the UBS6 to have this reading in the Greek, as well (Which will also affect the change in the NA 29 that will come out soon). So based on the new Critical Text (at the time of this writing), this could also potentially change the upcoming Critical Text Modern English translations, as well.
#4. Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus had faith in Hebrews 12:2 (NIV, CSB, NET, ISV, CEB, EXB, MOUNCE, RSV, NRSV). The KJV calls Jesus the “author...of our faith,” while select modern Bibles call Him the “pioneer of faith,” conveying the false idea that Jesus had faith. This again is not in line with the older lexicons that the KJV translators would have used. ᴰ⁻³ Hebrews 11 defines faith as “the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen” (Hebrews 11:1). Jesus, however, had seen the Father. John 1:18 says that the Son is “in the bosom of the Father,” and Jesus said, “The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do” (John 5:19). He also said that He came down from Heaven (John 6:38) and that He, the Son of Man, is in Heaven (John 3:13). Therefore, Jesus did not need faith in the Father’s existence in the same sense that we do. Some may object that Galatians 2:16 speaks of “the faith of Jesus Christ.” However, this does not mean that Jesus exercised faith toward the Father. That conclusion comes from reading the 1600s English phrase without considering the Greek construction and its possible meanings. See my writeup on Galatians 2:16 here, where I examine the Greek grammar, and lexical evidence. I also show there how this understanding of the Greek aligns with the English wording of the KJV.
#5. Modern Versions make Jesus appear to sin:
In Matthew 5:22, Modern Translations remove the words "without a cause" in reference to being angry with your brother. The King James Version (KJV) correctly includes these words, providing essential context:
“But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.” (Matthew 5:22) (KJV)
This distinction is crucial because Jesus Himself displayed anger in Mark 3:5: “And when he had looked round about on them with anger, being grieved for the hardness of their hearts, he saith unto the man, Stretch forth thine hand. And he stretched it out: and his hand was restored whole as the other.” (Mark 3:5) (KJV)
If we follow the wording of Modern Translations, it would imply that Jesus sinned by being angry, as Matthew 5:22 would appear to condemn anger in general as sinful. However, the KJV clarifies that Jesus was referring to anger without a cause as the sin, preserving the integrity of Jesus' sinless nature. This problem appears again in Mark 1:41, where the latest NIV says Jesus healed a leper with indignation (anger) rather than with compassion. No reason is given for anger, and such wording casts doubt on Jesus’ character.
Titus 3:10 in Modern Bibles instructs us to reject a divisive man or to have nothing more to do with such a person (NASB, NIV, ESV, NKJV, BSB). However, Jesus Himself says: “Suppose ye that I am come to give peace on earth? I tell you, Nay; but rather division:” (Luke 12:51) (KJV). The KJV avoids this confusion by using the word “heretick,” referring to someone promoting false doctrine.
The author of the Living Bible (TLB) renders Zechariah 13:6 as: “What are these wounds? Oh, these I got when I was in a brawl at my friend’s house.” This rendering is blasphemous because the verse is a prophecy about Jesus Christ, referring to the wounds He bore for humanity.
In John 7:8, Modern Translations remove the word "yet," which can make it seem as though Jesus initially stated He would not go to the feast but later attended, suggesting He was lying. The KJV includes the word "yet," clarifying the timeline. Jesus said to His disciples: "Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast; for my time is not yet full come." (John 7:8) (KJV)
Later, we see that Jesus did, in fact, go to the feast, consistent with His statement in the KJV.
I remember a Christian once telling me that Jesus lied, referring to this specific Scripture as evidence. I have also heard other Christians claim that Jesus sinned. This is absurd. Jesus had to be our spotless Lamb to pay the price for our sins. There’s no doubt they were likely reading or favoring a Modern Translation that led them to think this way.
The Bible clearly teaches that Jesus is holy, undefiled, and separate from sinners (Hebrews 7:26). It plainly states that Jesus is without sin (2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5; Hebrews 4:15).
Again, this is just a small sample of the work I have done. I have found 77 changed doctrines in Modern versions that are very serious and that number could easily be higher if I counted the list of verses for each point or reason.
Footnotes:
Footnotes (with no link):
A-1. - John 1:18:
Beza 1598: υἱός (huios): "Son” (KJV):
“Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακε πώποτε· ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός, ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρός, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.”
https://archive.org/details/1598-beza-greek-latin-nt/page/n375/mode/2up
Nestle and Aland 28: θεὸς (theos) “God”:
“Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.”
https://www.die-bibel.de/en/bible/NA28/JHN.1:18
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