not wasting time here to listen to bowman and just curious why he picks a sign of the Kaballah as is avatar
The Trinity did originate in the OT.
not wasting time here to listen to bowman and just curious why he picks a sign of the Kaballah as is avatar
I just better pray for you
You don't base a doctrine on one verse...
No.
It is for the bias of the translator.
Theos is usually arthrous in scripture, but how many times do renderings state 'The God'...?
Every word should be literal, and impart the same meaning as the original - otherwise, the word becomes borrowed...
Several honest translations show (the) in parenthesis.
Few, if any, translations show their exegesis.
My approach has always been to compare scripture to scripture....and, in doing so, showing overwhelming support that Satan is presently bound.
Your approach is to ignore any, and all, passages that contradict your world view.
Keep giving Satan power he doesn't have, Dan!
very true!
I considered discussing other passages with you, but since you seem to be willing to use at least one conclusion that differs from the vast majority of greek scholarship, I don't think there would be much benefit in discussing further scriptures.
we've already been over the role of the article here. every translated word must be placed by a human, and is therefore artifical.
I agree that you compare scripture to scripture. but, the translation and meaning that you attach to scripture is different from that used by the vast majority of scholarship.
It is in the plural.
if you're talking about διαβολος G1228 A-NSM, that appears to be singular.
as does the verb "walks" περιπατει G4043 G5719 V-PAI-3S
and the pronoun at the beginning of verse 9, ω G3739 R-DSM.
from
Unbound Bible
wescott-hort, parsed
That's a pretty lame excuse, even for you, Dan.
Translation: you barely could must up the effort to address one verse, much less the others that clearly and irrefutably collapse your worldview.
no, I am willing to pay attention to what the vast majority of greek scholars have to say.
so, we have no common ground on which to discuss the scriptures.
According to your logic, then wherever the Greek NT quotes the Hebrew OT, it is man made and artificial.
Is this the best excuse you can come up with, Dan...?
No.
I would be impressed if you could exegetically back up that statement...
I think every ot quote in the nt is the work of human translation.
there is no problem with God inspiring people to place human writings into inspired scripture. for example, Paul quotes a greek poet.
I've already done that in discussing the original language and grammar of 1 peter 5.
No, Dan....we were talking about another passage......one that you don't want to discuss...
James 4:7 Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.
If the devil is bound why does is say in the bible to resist him causing him to flee?
1 Peter 5:8
Be alert and of sober mind. Your enemy the devil prowls around like a roaring lion looking for someone to devour.
Prowls around? How can he prowl around if he is bound.
The context of James 4 is directed at those that are warring, murdering and committing adultery; the ones that are following demonic activities....of which, is the 'power' of Satan.
There is no mention of Satan possessing anyone, or directly causing the events in James 4.
We already covered this one-hit-wonder verse numerous times in this thread...and are covering it right now, again.
The word 'the' does not appear in the Greek, and, contextually, applies to 'a' demon...
that is just your opinion and why not the plural if it is non denotative?
It is in the plural.
if you're talking about διαβολος G1228 A-NSM, that appears to be singular.
as does the verb "walks" περιπατει G4043 G5719 V-PAI-3S
and the pronoun at the beginning of verse 9, ω G3739 R-DSM.
from
Unbound Bible
wescott-hort, parsed
no, I am willing to pay attention to what the vast majority of greek scholars have to say.
so, we have no common ground on which to discuss the scriptures.
No, Dan....we were talking about another passage......one that you don't want to discuss...
So...when Jesus quoted the Hebrew, in Greek, was it divinely inspired, or just His human nature?
This becomes obvious if you were to present Rev.20:1-3, which is simple in its understanding:
* An angel comes down out of heaven
* He has the key to the Abyss and a great chain in his hand
* He seizes the dragon who is identified as the devil and Satan
* He throws him into the Abyss and seals and locks it over him for a thousand years
To the average person, the above attributes are obvious and easy to understand from the scripture. But when the amillennialist is presented with this scripture, they are going to ignore the context of that scripture and take you on a rollercoaster ride throughout other scriptures that are irrelevant to Rev.20:1-3. .