Then it is also possible that Satan did not exist as the incarnation of these different gods? You are saying that it might simply be that the ancients imagined their gods existed, but that in reality there was nothing there? This last view is the one I hold. What seems more likely to you that Satan was busy answering pagan prayers to convince them of the reality of their gods, or that their occasional prayer was fulfilled just by happenstance?
I have a story. In her personal memoir, Prisoner of Tehran, Marina Nemat tells of her arrest at the age of 16 and of her forced conversion to Islam and her forced marriage to one of her torturers. Her Islamic sister-in-law confided in her of her unsuccessful prayers to Allah for a first child. Marina related to her the experience of her Christian aunt, who in a similar circumstance, prayed to the Virgin Mary for a child, and had her prayers answered. The Muslim woman did as Marina suggested, and in a short time she found herself pregnant. Both Marina and her sister-in-law credited the Virgin with the successful pregnancy.
I see three possible explanations for the pregnancy:
i) There was no supernatural intervention of any kind. The woman just happened to get pregnant and the personal faith of the women involved led them both of them to believe wrongly that prayers had been answered. (The view of any secularist rooted in scientific understanding).
ii) The Virgin Mary intervened. (The women’s interpretation, based upon faith).
iii) Satan intervened to make them think the Virgin Mary had intervened. (The position you tentatively proposed to explain why pagan prayers were answered).