It is if you claim that this is possible only with a single translation...
What does the number of translation haveto do with anything... is ok to worship multiple translations but not one?
It is if you claim that this is possible only with a single translation...
The same Spirit that rose Jesus from the grave in Romans 8 v 11. The same Spirit that lives in you. The same Spirit that Jesus spoke to Nicodemus of. That would be the Spirit of God, what other Spirit are you referring too? The implications are that it is the Spirit of God or the Holy Spirit. I am not as scholarly as some, but I can believe that when Jesus and God are referring to the Spirit, that they are referring to themself. The Holy Spirit.
Where do you get this from? What more do you have to go on than the ARAMAIC definition of elahh?
אֱלָהּʼĕlâhh, el-aw'; (Aramaic) corresponding to H433; God:—God, god.
Hoti has nothing to do with anything because Daniel is talking about the evil that would come upon the Jews if the Jews didn't do everything God commanded them to do at any point in history.
Deuteronomy 28:15 KJV
But it shall come to pass, if thou wilt not hearken unto the voice of the Lord thy God, to observe to do all his commandments and his statutes which I command thee this day; that all these curses shall come upon thee, and overtake thee:
Daniel is saying that as it is written (Deuteronomy 28:15-68) ALL those curses have come upon US.... present tense - his day.
Daniel 9:13 KJV
As it is written in the law of Moses, all this evil is come upon us: yet made we not our prayer before the Lord our God, that we might turn from our iniquities, and understand thy truth.
Daniel is speaking of the evil that has come upon us (present time in his day). Does that make sense, Dueteronomy didn't mention anything about the evil that would come in Daniel's day... The curse of Dueteronomy 28 is for ALL TIMES, not just Daniels day. I realize English is not your first language so I hope this makes sense.![]()
I talked about the LXX because it was brought up in my discussion with Trofimus. I'm not a supporter of the LXX and I don't use it because in the small amount of time I've spent reading it I have found many mistakes.
My position is that the KJV Old Testament doesn't match the New Testament word for word because the New Testament isn't qouting the Old Testament. The last verses Trofimus and I spoke about was Daniel 9:13 where Daniel says "as it is written".
Daniel 9:13 KJV
As it is written in the law of Moses, all this evil is come upon us: yet made we not our prayer before the Lord our God, that we might turn from our iniquities, and understand thy truth.
What does the number of translation haveto do with anything... is ok to worship multiple translations but not one?
Where does the Bible say we can worship it?![]()
You need to fix 1 John 5:17, the "earliest and best manuscripts" don't contain the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one at the end of that verse. I'm being factious of course!"What is the difference between being born from above and born again by the word of God?"
1 john 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
john 1:12 ".... as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name
1 john 5:8 "And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
1 john 5:6 "This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth
John 6:63 "It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
John 3:6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
John 17:8 "For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
john 17:17 "Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
1 peter 1:23 "Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
matthew 25:34 "Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.
john 8:51" Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.
I had nothing to read or memorize except the KJV as a child growing up. Because of that, I missed the gospel message. Now, that is the opposite of what some of you KJV Onlyists are saying. In fact, I think it is much harder to be saved reading the KJV than a modern version.
But then, I am not caught in a Satanic delusion which says that the KJV is the only version which saves someone, am I?
If the Spirit of Christ is in the written word, how am I not worshipping Christ? Mary kissed Jesus' feet in worship, was Mary worshipping the flesh body of Jesus or was she worshipping the Spirit of Christ?
I'll respond to your other posts later brother.![]()
You missed the gospel message in the KJV? What? The gospel is given in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. How did you miss that? It must have been your teachers who missed it.
The satanic delusion says that all versions are God's word because words or truth is not important. You take us right back to the garden with that thought. Individual words are important to God. Truth is important to God. Angela, I ask you to reconsider your beliefs on the word of God. God has promised to preserve His words for us. They are found perfected in the KJV. Not one thing you or someone else has said against the KJV has stuck as truth. Please do more research.
So the spirit of Christ in the written word speaks to me and that's considered idol worship? The bible says the word of God is ALIVE and a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.... is it?
Where does God say that they are found perfect in the KJV?
Again... the only worship we are to give is to God.
ANYTHING else is idolatry.
God promised to preserve His words. Where are God's words preserved? Can God preserve them in the English language? Is that possible with God? They are preserved in the English language through the KJV. Not one soul has convinced me otherwise.
Ok, if ’ělâhîn is ALWAYS plural then Daniel 2:47 should have been translated "that your gods is the gods of gods". Is this correct?I wrote,Daniel 2:4 – 7:28 is written in Aramaic rather than in Hebrew, and the although the Hebrew word for God, ’ĕlôhim, is used with a singular force in the Hebrew parts of the Old Testament, the Aramaic word for God, ’ělâhîn (found in Daniel 3:25), is always plural.
My assertion is supported by S. R. Driver who, in his 1900 commentary on Daniel, writes, “The rendering ‘the son of God cannot stand’ : ’ĕlôhim is, indeed, used with a singular force in Hebrew, but the Aram. ’ělâhîn is always a true plural.”
My assertion is also supported by John E Goldingay who, in his 1989 commentary on Daniel, writes that the Aramaic word ’ělâhîn is never used in a singular sense in any other biblical literature.
My assertion is also supported by John Stephen R. Miller who, in his 1994 commentary on Daniel writes, “What impressed Nebuchadnezzar most of all was that now the three Jews had been joined by a fourth man, and this one looked like “a son of the gods.” He cites the commentaries by Driver and Goldingay to support his comment and his translation of Dan.3:25.
Furthermore, my assertion is also supported by all of the very best translations of the Old Testament by Christian scholars (ASV, RSV, NRSV, NASB, ESV, NAB); and also by the Jewish Publication Society’s 1917 translation of the Tenakh,
Dan. 3:25. He answered and said: ‘Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods.’
Additionally, Martin Luther, in his 1534 translation of the Bible, translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und der vierte ist gleich, als ware er ein Sohn der Gotter (“and the fourth is like a son of the gods). And the 1951 German Schlachter Bible translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und die Gestalt des vierten gleicht einem Sohne der Götter! “(“and the figure of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”)
Moreover, Nebuchadnezzar was not a Christian; he was a Babylonian—and hence he was polytheistic rather than monotheistic in his beliefs. Therefore, whatever or whoever he may have seen in the furnace, he most certainly would not have described him as, “like the Son of God.” What is more, the use of the incorrect phrase, “like the Son of God”, in the KJV makes it appear as though the Book of Daniel is a fictional work by a Christian author rather than the inspired word of God.