King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?
- Thread starter Dai3234
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Z
Zi
Guest
Actually I went to the Greek text - the phrase used is "word of Christ".
I know that this will "convince you" that the everything apart from the KJV must be wrong because it disagrees with your preconceived view that the KJV MUST be correct in every way, but it is not.
Furthermore, the MEANING of the verse is no different but, to you, that is not the point.
It is "different" from the KJV and that is all that count with you.
Like I have said before - your god is not God, it is the KJV!
Exactly that, we don't have the ability to HEAR His word, we are deaf. We get our from hearing by the word of God. Reading and believing every single word, over time we hear His word in the bible. This is what Jesus is taking about in the verse below.
John 8:43 KJV
Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
I don't disagree, I've been trying to tell you guys this whole time that there is NO DIFFERENCE between the Word of God and the word of God. Not many people can grasp that, that's why KJV English makes it plain as day that HEARING comes from the word of God.
Zi in case you didn't pick up on what Jesus was saying in that verse, he was saying that HIS WORD was hidden in his speech and he was talking to Pharisees who knew the word of God but they could not hear his word in the scripture.
You are a liar and a deceiver of the first order!
You have taken John 8:43 completely out of context!
Lets look at that verse IN context:
42 Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I have come here from God. I have not come on my own; God sent me.
43 Why is my language not clear to you? Because you are unable to hear what I say.
44 You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies.
45 Yet because I tell the truth, you do not believe me!
46 Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don’t you believe me?
47 Whoever belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God.” John 8:42-47
Why are they unable to hear? vs 43;
Because they do not belong to God!! vs 47.
Stop twisting Scripture!
It's not a scripture twist, it's the difference between the KJV and the modern versions.
Z
Zi
Guest
Z
Zi
Guest
Absolute rubbish!
You quoted John 8:43 completely out of context to try and bolster an equally dodgy contention regarding the meaning of Rom 10:17.
Is it true that you really are too stupid to understand, or is it because you are hopelessly deceived....
I prefer to think the latter...at least with that option there is hope for you!
Z
Zi
Guest
More of a bad comparison.. one He's talking to folks who don't belong, the other they don't hear BC God blocked them for a time..
They only understood the "letter", they couldn't undertand the "spirit". Jesus was speaking about scripture to the Pharisees, why couldn't they hear his word? They were talking scripture and speaking the same language.
John 8:43 KJV
Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
John 8:43 KJV
Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
Here, is this better? Explain the verse to us all... the KJV version not your bible.
The meaning of the verse 43 is explained in verse 47 - you know the BIG RED LETTERS THAT I USED TO HIGHLIGHT THAT VERSE in my previous post.
I guess you must have NOT read my post before dismissing it!
Z
Zi
Guest
Nevermind, I follow you now.. I know what Jesus and Paul meant.. I didn't understand you're question
Z
Zi
Guest
The word of God they needed was the message of Christ being the fulfillment of the law, BC they were still working.. both versions make it clear for me..
I think I see your problem, you don't know what "my word" is do you? If you're not a KJV reader I wouldn't expect that you would know.
Why couldn't they understand his speech, why couldn't they hear HIS WORD? Language barrier? The Pharisees didn't know the scriptures? What does he mean by HIS WORD?
Z