By that argument, where is the commandment saying, "Thou shalt not kill/murder"?
Or thou shalt not commit adultery before the 10 commandments were given on Mt. Sinai?
I do not believe that humans were unaware of God’s righteous principles before the Law was written. We are all endowed with a conscience which means we have an innate sense of right and wrong.
God’s communication with his servants before the Law (in the era of the Patriarchs) was personal. Moses was commanded to put into writing what God’s requirement were.
God communicated with Moses on the mountain, and gave him the stone tablets inscribed by God’s own hand. The laws associated with the Ten Commandments were communicated to Moses directly.
Was murder wrong before the law was written on stone? Adultery?
Sin is the transgression of the law.
Where no law is there can be no transgression. By the law is the knowledge of sin.
Do you need those NT references?
Will this do?
“For all who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law. For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified. For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the work of the law is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness, and their conflicting thoughts accuse or even excuse them.” (Rom 12:2-15 ESV)
So please explain how Cain sinned when he killed his brother.
God warned Cain personally that his attitude towards his brother was wrong….Cain ignored a direct warning….and committed pre-meditated murder….showing that his heart was wicked.
Why was the antediluvian world destroyed?
Noah warned the people of his day that God was going to act to stop their wickedness…not a soul believed him, until the water began to swirl around their ankles and high ground was running out.
Did God bring that punishment on those people without due acknowledgment that even if 10 righteous people were in those cities, he would spare them? Was his punishment justified when all those men wanted to do was rape his angels?
Joseph knew it was a sin against God to sleep with Potiphar's wife.
What did Joseph say to her?
“But he refused and said to his master's wife, “Behold, because of me my master has no concern about anything in the house, and he has put everything that he has in my charge. He is not greater in this house than I am, nor has he kept back anything from me except you, because you are his wife. How then can I do this great wickedness and sin against God?” (Gen 39:8-9 ESV)
He was the head of Potiphar’s entire household and was not willing to betray his Master’s trust, knowing in his heart that marriage was instituted by his God. Although he was a slave, he was educated in his youth by his father Jacob, to know God’s principles about marriage.
How can such things be wrong if there was no law before Moses?
The Law of Moses was simply a written statement of the laws that God’s servants already knew….but hundreds of years in a foreign environment had dulled Israel’s perceptions of their God. Which is why Moses was commissioned to write them down. We see what happened when Moses was delaying in the mountain…the people decided to hold a festival to “Yahweh”, but they included the idol of a golden calf in their festival….God was furious with them because they had already agreed to abide by the 10 commandments before Moses had ascended the mountain…this included the law on idolatry.
Rather there was no WRITTEN law until Mt. Sinai.
Yes, but only Israel were bound by their oath to willingly obey that law…..no one else was accountable to it…do you understand why?
BTW the 10 commandments say nothing about circumcision, temples services or killing animals for the redemption from sin.
It was a different law from the Mosaic/Levitical laws.
The 10 Commandments were the 10 most important elements of the whole law. The other things were added so that Israel were commanded to be as separate from the nations as it was possible to be.
Circumcision, temple service and the animal sacrifices were given to show Israel that as a separate people, they were to be obedient to God in all things….it was a perfect law given to an imperfect people and it demonstrated that every one of them was in a debt of sin to God, and the blood of animals was a temporary way to gain forgiveness for their sins….a daily reminder of their need for the Messaih to come and pay the debt that none of them could pay. All the laws in the world would not save them, because none could keep it perfectly. Jesus did.
And yes, all 10 of the 10 commandments are fully endorsed and commanded for God's people to keep in the NT.
This would include the 4th (sabbath) precept.
The Law was only binding on Jews, not Gentiles. When a Gentile convert to Judaism was accepted into the Jewish community, they were under the same laws as Israel. But Jesus, as a Jew under law, kept it perfectly because he had no sin to impede him in his service to God. The Law imposed no such thing on Gentile Christians because they were not Jewish converts…..
When the circumcision issue was causing divisions in the Christian congregations, the apostles and older men in Jerusalem sought a solution to this divisive issue. Were Gentile Christians under obligation to keep Jewish laws? Their answer was NO!
They sent a letter to all the congregations stating their conclusions and the reasons for them….
“For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay on you no greater burden than these requirements: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols, and from blood, and from what has been strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell.” So when they were sent off, they went down to Antioch, and having gathered the congregation together, they delivered the letter. And when they had read it, they rejoiced because of its encouragement.” (Acts15: 28-31 ESV)
There is no mention of a Sabbath in those “requirements”….so Gentiles did not have to abide by Jewish law and neither did the Jewish Christians, because the “requirements” had changed due to Christ’s sacrifice and the implementation of the “new covenant”, which was not like the old one at all. (Jer 31:31-33)
The principles of the law still applied but these were now written on hearts….if any Christian wanted to have a quiet day of worship and rest, no specific day was now required to do so. Every day could be a day to honor God and to worship him by their actions in upholding his righteous principles in their every day lives.