looking for help reconciling the Sabbath with common observation?

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The 10 commandments do not command circumcision.
Or those other things you mentioned.
They were not written on stone by the finger of God.
Israel was given the law in a covenant of blood.

The Gentile nations were not given the law of Moses in a covenant.

Your assuming that God gave the whole law to everyone in the world which is not true.

Is there an imprint of the law in the background of history?

Of course there is.

The difference is the written law in a blood covenant to obey the law is missing in the Gentile world.

Israel only was in that old covenant.
 
The Sabbath was the sign of the Sinai covenant (Exod 31:13–
16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant.

It is these little errors that can change there meaning....

There is no evidence that this covenant was part of the covenant made earlier.

The old covenant which failed was made by the people at a different time to this covenant above.

God made many covenants and you are putting them all together as one.

This covenant about keeping the sabbath was not the old covenant that was replaced by new.
 
16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant.

It is these little errors that can change there meaning....

There is no evidence that this covenant was part of the covenant made earlier.

The old covenant which failed was made by the people at a different time to this covenant above.

God made many covenants and you are putting them all together as one.

This covenant about keeping the sabbath was not the old covenant that was replaced by new.
Your objection collapses because Scripture itself treats the Sabbath‑sign covenant of Exodus 31 as part of the Sinai covenant, not a separate, unrelated covenant floating in isolation.
Exodus 31:13–17 is not a new covenant; it is the sign of the covenant already made at Sinai (Exod 24:7–8), and Scripture explicitly ties the Sabbath to that covenant, not to some later, independent agreement.
The claim “there is no evidence this covenant was part of the earlier covenant” is false — the entire context of Exodus 19–24 is the covenant, and Exodus 25–31 is the stipulations and signs of that covenant.
 
Brother, the issue isn’t whether the Ten Commandments are “God’s laws” — of course they are — the issue is that Scripture never calls the fourth commandment a moral law, never separates it from the other sabbaths, and never exempts it from the shadow category
The fact that it was created by God at creation seperates it.
The fact that it is in the 10 commandments seperates it.
The fact that the 10 were written and spoken by God and placed inside the ark seperates it.

The 4th commandment was punishable by death.
No ceremonial law was punishiable by death - only the moral law.

You are using arguments that mean nothing.... for example "in Col 2 the sabbath was weekly because the jews use a standard triad... yearly, monthly and weekly. Presumption but not proff.
Meat and drink were mentioned too.
And handwriting of ordinances was referred to in verse 14.

Presumption is not fact.

Mat 5:17-18
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Fact = in Jesus's day the law was not change and it must have been referenced in the OT. No New covenant or change has happened.
Presumption = The law is the new changed law.

Col 2:16-17 16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: 17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

Fact = not judge you on ..
Meat
Drink
Holy day
New moon
Sabbaths
Fact = there were many different sabbaths and holy days kept by the Jews.

Presumption = the 7th day sabbath is a shadow law. It is referring to the 4th commandment.

Which are a shadow of this to come

Fact = shadows TO COME.

presumption = shadow of Christ that has already come.
Presumption = being a shadow makes it void.

This one verse needs support from other Bible verses to clarify the presumptions as true or false.

Eg...
Jas 2:10-12
10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. 11 For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. 12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
 
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16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant.

It is these little errors that can change there meaning....

There is no evidence that this covenant was part of the covenant made earlier.

The old covenant which failed was made by the people at a different time to this covenant above.

God made many covenants and you are putting them all together as one.

This covenant about keeping the sabbath was not the old covenant that was replaced by new.
the 4th commandment is important so that the people will not forget God.
I still believe it is 7 in a cycle.
 
The fact that it was created by God at creation seperates it.
The fact that it is in the 10 commandments seperates it.
The fact that the 10 were written and spoken by God and placed inside the ark seperates it.

The 4th commandment was punishable by death.
No ceremonial law was punishiable by death - only the moral law.

You are using arguments that mean nothing.... for example "in Col 2 the sabbath was weekly because the jews use a standard triad... yearly, monthly and weekly. Presumption but not proff.
Meat and drink were mentioned too.
And handwriting of ordinances was referred to in verse 14.

Presumption is not fact.

Mat 5:17-18
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Fact = in Jesus's day the law was not change and it must have been referenced in the OT. No New covenant or change has happened.
Presumption = The law is the new changed law.

Col 2:16-17 16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: 17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

Fact = not judge you on ..
Meat
Drink
Holy day
New moon
Sabbaths
Fact = there were many different sabbaths and holy days kept by the Jews.

Presumption = the 7th day sabbath is a shadow law. It is referring to the 4th commandment.

Which are a shadow of this to come

Fact = shadows TO COME.

presumption = shadow of Christ that has already come.
Presumption = being a shadow makes it void.

This one verse needs support from other Bible verses to clarify the presumptions as true or false.

Eg...
Jas 2:10-12
10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. 11 For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. 12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
None of your “separations” are biblical categories —
Scripture never says creation‑origin makes a command moral,
never says “written on stone = moral,”
never says “inside the ark = moral,”
never says “death penalty = moral,” and
never says “ceremonial laws were never punishable by death”;
Those are human grids laid over the text, not statements of the text.

The only inspired category Scripture gives for the Sabbath is covenant sign (Exod 31:13–17), and covenant signs can be ancient (circumcision, Gen 17), written by God (circumcision command, Gen 17:14), and death‑penalized (Exod 31:14) without being universal moral law.
Your Col 2 rebuttal fails because Paul explicitly names holyday (annual), new moon (monthly), and sabbaths (weekly) — the standard OT triad (1 Chr 23:31; 2 Chr 2:4; 2 Chr 31:3; Ezek 45:17), not a “presumption,” and he calls them shadows whose substance is Christ; “to come” matches Hebrews 10:1, where the shadows pointed forward to Christ’s work, not forward to some future Sabbath restoration.

Matthew 5:17–18 doesn’t rescue your claim because Jesus says the Law remains until all is fulfilled, and Hebrews 7:12 says the priesthood’s change necessitated a change of law, and Hebrews 8:13 says the old covenant is obsolete — meaning the covenant sign tied to that covenant does not carry over.
James 2:10–12 proves the moral core (no murder, no adultery) remains, but James never cites the Sabbath as part of the “law of liberty.”
Your argument depends entirely on categories Scripture never gives; the text itself treats the Sabbath as a sign, a shadow, and a type, not as the universal moral standard you’re trying to force it into.
 
None of your “separations” are biblical categories —
Scripture never says creation‑origin makes a command moral,
never says “written on stone = moral,”
never says “inside the ark = moral,”
never says “death penalty = moral,” and
never says “ceremonial laws were never punishable by death”;
Those are human grids laid over the text, not statements of the text.

The only inspired category Scripture gives for the Sabbath is covenant sign (Exod 31:13–17), and covenant signs can be ancient (circumcision, Gen 17), written by God (circumcision command, Gen 17:14), and death‑penalized (Exod 31:14) without being universal moral law.
Your Col 2 rebuttal fails because Paul explicitly names holyday (annual), new moon (monthly), and sabbaths (weekly) — the standard OT triad (1 Chr 23:31; 2 Chr 2:4; 2 Chr 31:3; Ezek 45:17), not a “presumption,” and he calls them shadows whose substance is Christ; “to come” matches Hebrews 10:1, where the shadows pointed forward to Christ’s work, not forward to some future Sabbath restoration.

Matthew 5:17–18 doesn’t rescue your claim because Jesus says the Law remains until all is fulfilled, and Hebrews 7:12 says the priesthood’s change necessitated a change of law, and Hebrews 8:13 says the old covenant is obsolete — meaning the covenant sign tied to that covenant does not carry over.
James 2:10–12 proves the moral core (no murder, no adultery) remains, but James never cites the Sabbath as part of the “law of liberty.”
Your argument depends entirely on categories Scripture never gives; the text itself treats the Sabbath as a sign, a shadow, and a type, not as the universal moral standard you’re trying to force it into.
Is murder and immoral act? Taking my brother's wife? Stealing?
And yet the law the commands against those things you don't think is a moral law?

Is it just as immoral today as is was in OT times to participate in the fertility rites of Astarte? To throw your firstborn to the flames of Chemosh? To kiss the feet of an idol in adoration?

Or now that you are a saved Christians these things are moral acts that you can do freely whenever you wish?
 
The claim that the Sabbath was only an Old Covenant institution fails when Scripture's timeline is examined. The Sabbath was not introduced at Sinai. It appears before Israel existed as a nation...Genesis 2:2–3 states: "God blessed the seventh day and made it holy, because on it He rested from all the work of creating that He had done." The Sabbath is rooted in creation itself, not merely the Mosaic covenant...Then, when the Ten Commandments were given, the 4th commandment does not say "create a new Sabbath." It says: "REMEMBER the Sabbath day by keeping it holy." — Exodus 20:8 To remember something means it was already established and known...The commandment connects directly back to creation: "For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth... but He rested on the seventh day. Therefore the LORD blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy." — Exodus 20:11...So the biblical sequence is: Creation → Sabbath established → Israel commanded to remember → Sabbath observed. The question is not whether the Sabbath existed under the Old Covenant. It clearly did...The question is whether something established by God at creation and included in the moral law is abolished simply because the Old Covenant reached fulfillment. To also note that marriage as well was also included in the mosaic laws and establish in the days of creation but yet we do not say that marriage is fullfilled. We cant be isolating the Sabbath alone. Jesus said: "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath." — Mark 2:27...Notice He did not say the Sabbath was made only for Israel. The foundation of the Sabbath is creation, the command is remembrance, and its purpose predates Sinai. In the book of Revelations 1:10 “I was in the spirit in the Lord’s day” Jesus said he is Lord over the sabbath day and John is busy addressing Jesus himself when he is talking about his experience on the Lord’s day, the Lord’s day is the day Jesus is Lord over which as he said is the sabbath day thus the Lord’s day is Sabbath.
So what are you trying to do on the Sabbath?
 
I believe the shadow laws that were given as a type are not moral laws. And nailed to the cross.
So your saying it's ok to get drunk as that's not in the ten words.

Your saying you can abuse orphans because it's not in the moral ten commandments.

God has no problem with you if you kidnap someone's kids that's not in the ten, therefore it is a shadow law.

Sin is never the shadow law of sorcery and witchcraft.

Abusing your slaves or employees is a shadow law and definitely not sinful.

You can hate your enemies with all your might as it's not in the ten moral laws.

You will never die if you transgress any of the ordinances but you will die if you don't rest on the sabbath day.

Shadow laws were nailed to the cross so you have the liberty to get drunk and beat your slaves.

Taxation laws and business law is not in the ten commandments so there is no reason to obey any Govt law.

Holiness is not listed in the ten commandments.

Humility is not listed in the ten commandments.

Tithing is a shadow law.

Swearing is not in the ten commandments nor is coarse joking.

Above all, greed is not listed in the ten words.
 
None of your “separations” are biblical categories —
Scripture never says creation‑origin makes a command moral,
No cerimonial laws existed until sin.

Before sin only moral laws existed.

The sabbath was created for man and blessed by God before sin.

So before sin = moral.

Sin in this world was not present but Satan had already sinned in heaven.

But humans created in God's image did not need any laws that deals with redemption and atonement. We could talk face to face with God before sin. But the sin that Adam committed was unto death. He transgressed the moral law.

Though shalt not covet and thou shalt have no other gods before me.

never says “written on stone = moral,”
never says “inside the ark = moral,”
I didn't say it made them moral I said it seperated them or distinguished them from the other laws. They were different on these grounds.


never says “death penalty = moral,”
The penalty of sin is death.
Sin is the transgression of the law.

If we are guilty of death before God we must of transgressed one of the moral laws.

Exo 31:14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.

I was stating the differences between the laws.

One law is the moral law that defines sin.
One law was given after sin to point to and deal with sin.

When you mix them all together they lose there purpose and value...
 
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No cerimonial laws existed until sin.

Before sin only moral laws existed.

The sabbath was created for man and blessed by God before sin.

So before sin = moral.

Sin in this world was not present but Satan had already sinned in heaven.

But humans created in God's image did not need any laws that deals with redemption and atonement. We could talk face to face with God before sin. But the sin that Adam committed was unto death. He transgressed the moral law.

Though shalt not covet and thou shalt have no other gods before me.


I didn't say it made them moral I said it seperated them or distinguished them from the other laws. They were different on these grounds.



The penalty of sin is death.
Sin is the transgression of the law.

If we are guilty of death before God we must of transgressed one of the moral laws.

Exo 31:14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.

I was stating the differences between the laws.

One law is the moral law that defines sin.
One law was given after sin to point to and deal with sin.

When you mix them all together they lose there purpose and value...
Genesis never calls the Sabbath a law before the fall; it simply says God rested and blessed the seventh day (Gen 2:3).
There is no command to Adam and Eve to keep a Sabbath, no prohibition, no penalty, no covenant sign — the first time Sabbath becomes a command is Exodus 16, and the first time it becomes a sign is Exodus 31:13–17, explicitly tied to Israel’s covenant, not creation.
Your claim that “only moral laws existed before sin” is not in the text;
Scripture never says that.
Your claim that Adam broke “thou shalt not covet” or “no other gods before me” is also not in the text;
Genesis defines the sin as violating one command — “of the tree… thou shalt not eat” (Gen 2:17).
Paul defines sin as transgression of any command God gives (Rom 4:15), not as transgression of a Ten‑Commandment subset.
And your death‑penalty argument collapses because Sabbath violation carries the death penalty (Ex 31:14), which — by your own logic — would make Sabbath a moral law, yet Paul explicitly places Sabbaths in the shadow category (Col 2:16–17).
Scripture never says “written on stone = moral,” never says “inside the ark = moral,” never says “given before sin = moral,” never says “given after sin = ceremonial,” and never says mixing laws “loses their purpose.” The Bible’s own category is simple: the Sinai covenant is one unit (Deut 4:13–14; James 2:10), and Christ fulfills and supersedes that covenant (Heb 8:13; 10:1).
Everything else is a system you’re adding, not a category Scripture teaches. And the system you are using is the classic Adventist‑style moral vs. ceremonial law framework — a grid Scripture never teaches — where “moral law” is defined as eternal, creation‑based, universal, Ten‑Commandment‑only, and “ceremonial law” is defined as temporary, post‑fall, symbolic, and fulfilled at the cross; every claim he makes (“before sin only moral laws existed,” “Sabbath created before sin = moral,” “death penalty proves moral,” “transgression of moral law = only kind of sin,” “laws inside the ark are different,” “mixing laws loses their purpose”) comes from that system, not from the biblical text. So if you wish to discuss Scripture, leave your system behind. Otherwise I leave you with this warning,
Scripture warns repeatedly and explicitly against imposing world‑systems onto the Word of God because they replace God’s voice with human frameworks;
Jesus rebukes the Pharisees for this exact move (“you nullify the word of God for your tradition,” Matt 15:6),
Paul warns against mixing human philosophy with revelation (“not according to Christ,” Col 2:8), and
Moses commands Israel not to add or subtract from God’s words (Deut 4:2);
Every time a human system is laid over Scripture, it reshapes the text to fit the system, and Scripture calls that corruption, not interpretation.
The danger is simple: once a system becomes the lens, the system becomes the authority — and the text becomes the servant.
That’s why Jesus, Paul, and the prophets all warn that the Word must govern the categories, not the categories govern the Word.
When someone insists on a moral‑vs‑ceremonial grid, or a prophetic‑timeline grid, or a covenant‑division grid, and then forces Scripture to fit it, they are doing exactly what Scripture forbids: adding human structure to divine revelation.
 
Your Col 2 rebuttal fails because Paul explicitly names holyday (annual), new moon (monthly), and sabbaths (weekly) — the standard OT triad (1 Chr 23:31; 2 Chr 2:4; 2 Chr 31:3; Ezek 45:17), not a “presumption,” and he calls them shadows whose substance is Christ; “to come” matches Hebrews 10:1, where the shadows pointed forward to Christ’s work, not forward to some future Sabbath restoration.
But you fail to read the context.

Col 2:13-14
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

How did the people in the old Testament times have there sins forgiven.

They needed to transfer their sins onto the animal which they killed. The blood was taken into the sanctuary..... etc.

Heb 10:4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

This system legally did not make the sinner free.

The moral law pointed out sin and the penalty but the cerimonial laws was set up to deal with sin. But it was only a type. It didn't legally take away sin.

Animals could not pay the price. The price needed to be paid by Christ the creator.

Why have this system if it did not pay....

Because when they went through the cerimonial process they were by faith looking to the one who would pay in the future or Jesus would take this confession and vow to pay it when He came. Jesus seen it as a debt that He needed to pay.

It was a credit system yet to be paid. If Jesus failed or did not come the debts would not have been paid. People looked for a future saviour. It was a system of debts yet to be paid.
Col 2:13-14 is dealing with this system of debt.

Having forgiven you all the debts from sins or all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

removing this handwriting of ordinances.
That was against us. And nailed it to the cross.

Was this the law that defines sin or the sin.

It isn't the 10 commandments because.
Psa 119:35 Make me to go in the path of thy commandments; for therein do I delight.
Paul states them to be holy and good. The 10 commandments are not a bad thing that needs to be dealt with. . Sin needs dealing with.

Sin was nailed to the cross, all the sins from the OT times that Jesus promised to deal with were nailed to the cross. And the system that was used had no need after the cross.

Handwriting of ordinances = a certificate of debt.
 
But you fail to read the context.

Col 2:13-14
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

How did the people in the old Testament times have there sins forgiven.

They needed to transfer their sins onto the animal which they killed. The blood was taken into the sanctuary..... etc.

Heb 10:4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

This system legally did not make the sinner free.

The moral law pointed out sin and the penalty but the cerimonial laws was set up to deal with sin. But it was only a type. It didn't legally take away sin.

Animals could not pay the price. The price needed to be paid by Christ the creator.

Why have this system if it did not pay....

Because when they went through the cerimonial process they were by faith looking to the one who would pay in the future or Jesus would take this confession and vow to pay it when He came. Jesus seen it as a debt that He needed to pay.

It was a credit system yet to be paid. If Jesus failed or did not come the debts would not have been paid. People looked for a future saviour. It was a system of debts yet to be paid.
Col 2:13-14 is dealing with this system of debt.

Having forgiven you all the debts from sins or all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

removing this handwriting of ordinances.
That was against us. And nailed it to the cross.

Was this the law that defines sin or the sin.

It isn't the 10 commandments because.
Psa 119:35 Make me to go in the path of thy commandments; for therein do I delight.
Paul states them to be holy and good. The 10 commandments are not a bad thing that needs to be dealt with. . Sin needs dealing with.

Sin was nailed to the cross, all the sins from the OT times that Jesus promised to deal with were nailed to the cross. And the system that was used had no need after the cross.

Handwriting of ordinances = a certificate of debt.
You're barking up a dead tree my friend.
Some people believe once saved they no longer have to follow any laws, especially the 10 commandments.
That it is now OK to break at will any of those 10 commands.

Go ahead and murder your neighbor. You are already forgiven.
Go ahead and take his wife. Again already forgiven.
That's how much of a hold the man of lawlessness has on them.
 
You're barking up a dead tree my friend.
Some people believe once saved they no longer have to follow any laws, especially the 10 commandments.
That it is now OK to break at will any of those 10 commands.

Go ahead and murder your neighbor. You are already forgiven.
Go ahead and take his wife. Again already forgiven.
That's how much of a hold the man of lawlessness has on them.
Dave, you aimed your fire at me, and you did it because you thought I was preaching some “grace means you can break the Ten Commandments” nonsense.
But that’s not what I said, not what I implied, and not what Col 2 teaches.
I wasn’t arguing that Christians can murder, commit adultery, steal, or live however they want —
I was explaining that Paul identifies the ceremonial_law as the thing nailed to the cross, not the moral law.
You jumped in to defend him by accusing me of antinomianism, but the text itself contradicts your reaction:
Jesus says love for Him is proven by keeping His commandments (John 14:15),
Paul says faith establishes the law_of_God (Rom 3:31), and
John says rejecting God’s commands is evidence of not knowing Him (1 John 2:4).
So your charge wasn’t a rebuttal — it was a misunderstanding.
I wasn’t attacking him, and I wasn’t promoting lawlessness; I was distinguishing the shadow‑ordinances that ended at the cross from the moral law that still defines sin.
 
Dave, you aimed your fire at me, and you did it because you thought I was preaching some “grace means you can break the Ten Commandments” nonsense.
But that’s not what I said, not what I implied, and not what Col 2 teaches.
I wasn’t arguing that Christians can murder, commit adultery, steal, or live however they want —
I was explaining that Paul identifies the ceremonial_law as the thing nailed to the cross, not the moral law.
You jumped in to defend him by accusing me of antinomianism, but the text itself contradicts your reaction:
Jesus says love for Him is proven by keeping His commandments (John 14:15),
Paul says faith establishes the law_of_God (Rom 3:31), and
John says rejecting God’s commands is evidence of not knowing Him (1 John 2:4).
So your charge wasn’t a rebuttal — it was a misunderstanding.
I wasn’t attacking him, and I wasn’t promoting lawlessness; I was distinguishing the shadow‑ordinances that ended at the cross from the moral law that still defines sin.
Then why are you so adamant that the 7th day sabbath does not need to be kept any more?
It is still one of the 10 commandments.
The 10 commandments do not change over the passage of time.
If killing is wrong, stealing, adultery, worshiping idols; then breaking the 4th commandment is also wrong....

You really need to make up your mind.
 
Then why are you so adamant that the 7th day sabbath does not need to be kept any more?
It is still one of the 10 commandments.
The 10 commandments do not change over the passage of time.
If killing is wrong, stealing, adultery, worshiping idols; then breaking the 4th commandment is also wrong....

You really need to make up your mind
When Jesus says He is Lord of the Sabbath, He is not saying “the Sabbath remains binding,” He is saying He owns it, defines it, fulfills it, and has authority to do with it what no Israelite could—He permits His disciples to do what the Pharisees called unlawful (Matt 12:1–8), He declares mercy greater than Sabbath sacrifice (v.7), He heals on it repeatedly to expose its temporary, covenantal function (John 5; Luke 13), and He ties His lordship to the fact that the Sabbath was made “for man” (Mark 2:27–28), meaning its purpose was service, not bondage; and when the One who is Lord over a covenant sign fulfills the covenant (Heb 8:13) and calls that sign a shadow pointing to Himself (Col 2:16–17), His lordship means He can retire the shadow because the substance has arrived. Christ being Lord of the Sabbath is not an argument for keeping it, but the biblical reason the apostles never re‑impose it.
 
Is the argument that the Sabbath simply disappears from God’s purposes after the Old Covenant? What do you make of Isaiah 66:22–23?
22. For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the Lord, so shall your seed and your name remain.

23. And it shall come to pass, that from one new moon to another, and from one sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the Lord.

Is there truly a change for a time or there is not a gap, but only continual evil to do what is right in your own eyes?

Proverbs 21:2. Every way of a man is right in his own eyes: but the Lord pondereth the hearts.
 
When Jesus says He is Lord of the Sabbath, He is not saying “the Sabbath remains binding,” He is saying He owns it, defines it, fulfills it, and has authority to do with it what no Israelite could—He permits His disciples to do what the Pharisees called unlawful (Matt 12:1–8), He declares mercy greater than Sabbath sacrifice (v.7), He heals on it repeatedly to expose its temporary, covenantal function (John 5; Luke 13), and He ties His lordship to the fact that the Sabbath was made “for man” (Mark 2:27–28), meaning its purpose was service, not bondage; and when the One who is Lord over a covenant sign fulfills the covenant (Heb 8:13) and calls that sign a shadow pointing to Himself (Col 2:16–17), His lordship means He can retire the shadow because the substance has arrived. Christ being Lord of the Sabbath is not an argument for keeping it, but the biblical reason the apostles never re‑impose it.
There is no record in scripture that Jesus changed the 7th day sabbath to another day.

The only change made in God's law in scripture is that made by the little horn of Daniel 7. And it specifically deals with a time period in the law. That can only mean the 7th day sabbath.

It is this little horn that "thinks" he can change "times and laws" (AKA the times of the law).
This is the antichrist. The man of lawlessness.

God never changed the 7th day of the week as a day of rest from a 6-day work week for His people to another day.