N
No mention of the atonement, nor sanctification?
Atonement is mentioned in the verses following. The basis of justification and glorification. Sanctification is part of what we are predestined to. Being conformed is part of sanctification.
N
No mention of the atonement, nor sanctification?
Predestination is of existing saints to adoption/glorification, not sinners to conversion. (Eph. 1:5, 11; Rom. 8:23, 29-30)Atonement is mentioned in the verses following. The basis of justification and glorification. Sanctification is part of what we are predestined to. Being conformed is part of sanctification.
Your avoiding the question by a boogeyman tactic . Could you show me a verse please without going to a scare tactic ?
Predestination is of existing saints to adoption/glorification, not sinners to conversion. (Eph. 1:5, 11; Rom. 8:23, 29-30)
" Predestinate is what gods has chosen for believers" Yes thank you. This is what the bible teaches . FOR BELIEVERS not lost people.
I'm not interested in labels. Just pretend these ' boogeyman ' options don't exist and deal with the text . Otherwise you won't have an arguement against an open theist . Other than ' nah nah your an open theist " . To which he.ll thank you for that.It’s not a boogeyman tactic, Leighton Flowers Jr. if you think God didn’t know who He was going to regenerate beforehand, you are an open theist.
Verse. Acts 15:18
He didn't know beforehand? according to your theories?God didn’t foreknow lost people, therefore He did not predestinate them. Whom He foreknew, He predestinated.
I'm not interested in labels. Just pretend these ' boogeyman ' options don't exist and deal with the text . Otherwise you won't have an arguement against an open theist . Other than ' nah nah your an open theist " . To which he.ll thank you for that.
He didn't know beforehand? according to your theories?
For Israel directly, God chose them specifically ,in time . So thats a silly question. Beforehand he previously was dealing with them . He knows them beforehand for all the reasons in context. I know my wife more than i do my neighbour.Apparently, you do not know the meaning of foreknow. Or know for that matter.
When God said to Israel, you only have I known among the nations, that doesn’t mean He did not have knowledge of other nations, right?
from the beginning of the world.
from the beginning of the world.
For Israel directly, God chose them specifically ,in time . So thats a silly question. Beforehand he previously was dealing with them . He knows them beforehand for all the reasons in context. I know my wife more than i do my neighbour.
Why has the English translated it ' from ' ?This is the textus receptus of Acts 15:18.
γνωστὰ ἀπ᾽ αἰῶνος ἐστίν τῷ Θεῷ πάντα τὰ ἔργα αὑτοῦ
It says ἀπ᾽ αἰῶνος
Do you know the range of meanings for aion in Greek.
My point is that we are not known as a son ,prior to being in him . God did not know Israel prior to actually interacting with them . Same with us . We are not known ' in christ ' as a son until eph 1.12-13 happens .My point was that the words "know" and "foreknow" are not merely referring to "having knowledge of". SO every question that assumes that meaning can be skipped from here on out, Ok.
Why has the English translated it ' from ' ?
My point is that we are not known as a son ,prior to being in him . God did not know Israel prior to actually interacting with them . Same with us . We are not known ' in christ ' as a son until eph 1.12-13 happens .
rom 11Because foreknow is different than know. I’m going to leave you with that.
Eph 1.5 . Paul is telling already saved believers in Christ that along with all the blessings that come in christ , is also that they are predestined to the adoption . This is not Paul telling those in christ that they were predestined to be converted . But rather to the Adoption ,WHICH HAS NOT HAPPENED YET .Where does Ephesians say predestination after conversion? It doesn’t
Where does Romans say predestination after conversion? It doesn’t