I'm not surprised it came across that way to you. (1 Corinthians 2:14)
Loss of salvation???
- Thread starter gratefuloneson
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I think many if not most these days do not understand how crucial this is - that volition is retained. The craziness that takes place on the Calvinist threads about the philosophical debate over "free will" is mind-numbing.
Faith-Alone has been distorted since it first came about. Faith-Alone saves as long as "Faith" is understood biblically.
I attended a seminary that was Free-Grace and assisted with some things that meant reading the articles that were submitted for their main publication. I watched the thinking progressively trend into making Faith absolutely passive on men's part.
Current Faith-Alone is not historical Faith-Alone and the current version is pushed on these threads which shows how prevalent it is in current pulpits.
It is being used as a synonym for destroy, fine, but annihilate it's true etymology means to make into nothing, non-existence.
It is a concept which comes from the Latin word... nihilo/nothingness/ no existence/ no matter, no energy.
That is not what is in view in the scripture, unless you also believe in annihilation of the dead theory, which again is not biblical
God sets the standard.
The simple faith that receives the gift of salvation, a complete salvation, is the one that has trusted God for the gift, knowing it is completely free, all one can do is accept it, so yes it is passive in the sense one cannot earn that gift and cannot add to the gift.
Your approach makes the singular act of faith/trust in Christ's all sufficient work, insufficient and makes faith "quid pro quo" which is exactly the faith which does not save.
You don’t see the difference between into, on and in in those verses in John.
Also note it was shared to keep chapter 17 in mind.
Behavior control through fear mongering by preaching a losable salvation will not fix the problem.
The problem is an incorrect Gospel, discipleship and walking in the Spirit.
But that theological concept of annihilation does not have to mean what annihilation can mean to others.
It may be there because some in theology do believe in annihilation the way you're using it based upon its etymology.
Then again, it may be there because words have ranges of meaning and definitions are prescriptive or descriptive - most in our times are descriptive and constantly changing.
Webster's 1828:
ANNI'HILATE, verb transitive [Latin ad and nihilum, nothing, of ne, not, and hilum, a trifle.]
1. To reduce to nothing; to destroy the existence of.
No human power can annihilate matter.
2. To destroy the form or peculiar distinctive properties, so that the specific thing no longer exists; as, to annihilate a forest by cutting and carrying away the trees, though the timber may still exist; to annihilate a house by demolishing the structure.
Merriam-Webster
1
a: to cause to cease to exist : to do away with entirely so that nothing remains
b: to destroy a considerable part of
Bombs annihilatedthe city.
The enemy troops were annihilated.
c: to defeat overwhelmingly : rout
annihilatedthe visitors 56–0
2
a: to cause to be of no effect : nullify
a right to freedom that cannot be annihilated
b: to destroy the substance or force of
Fear can annihilate one's confidence.
3: to regard as of no consequence
4: to cause (something, such as a particle and its antiparticle) to vanish or cease to exist by coming together and changing into other forms of energy (such as photons)
matter and antimatter annihilate each other
Also, looking up synonyms today, destroy and annihilate are shown as synonymous.
Meaning of the passage.... those who are saved are saved ...repentance for salvation is once and for all, anything else puts Him and His work to open shame because it means His work was insufficient and needs repeating.
But all you've done is asserted a belief system.
And passive belief is not remotely biblical.
I see and have studied the differences in all prepositions and try to always note which one is being used and why and what is its range of meaning. I'm very aware of the fact that John uses eis and see it as an important detail in his writings.
I was just asking you to explain the importance of eis in GJohn because your conclusion was not clear to me. Note it's also used in John17:20 that you didn't flag but I assumed from your post and list that you were stressing it's importance attached to substantival present participles.
It looked like an informative post with an unclear conclusion as to why it's important.