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The good news is that Jesus Christ (God) is human foreverAnd I believe he was fully human at one stage.
The good news is that Jesus Christ (God) is human foreverAnd I believe he was fully human at one stage.
Yep, that us what it is clearly saying
And incidentally, you have brought no scripture at all to repudiate my belief. All you are bringing is love fulfills the law. I agree with that. It fulfills the law as it did under the old covenant(matt22:37-40) when you would agree the law was in place
So your verses to try and prove only two commandments have been placed in the believers heart have been proved to be a false argument based on the words of Christ
Jesus of Nazareth did not exist prior to his conception of the Holy Spirit in the womb of Mary in Mt 1:20.Well, I don't know what those implications are. I believe Jesus has always been and still is fully God. And I believe he was fully human at one stage.
What is contra-biblical to this?
Maybe the way I am conceiving it isn't fully worked out right.. but surely my believe above is NOT contra-biblical.
Read the whole context of 2Co 3:3, and read Ro 13:8-10 in context with understanding.
Read the whole context of 2Co 3:3, and read Ro 13:8-10 in context with understanding.
Jesus of Nazareth did not exist prior to his conception of the Holy Spirit in the womb of Mary in Mt 1:20.
God the Son, the spirit, has existed for all eternity, who then in time became flesh (Jn 1:14) in Jesus of Nazareth.
Jesus of Nazareth would not be 100% human if he existed from all eternity before Adam was created.
If he were not 100% human, he could not be the perfect Mediator, High Priest and Savior.
Were the Gentiles living during the time from Moses to Christ conscious of their sin?Through the law we become conscious of sin rom3:20
How many christians on this website do you believe are not conscious of their individual sins? I have never met one!
How did they become conscious of their sin ?
The bible is clear on that point
Until the law is fulfilled. . .which it has been.It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than
for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the law luke16:17
Straw man. . .Jesus died for your sins(transgressions of the law) not to annul the law.
Christ is the goal of the law unto righteousness.Christ is the end of the law UNTO RIGHTEOUSNESS to everyone who believeth
You have given your opinion. . .not what the Scripture states.I have done. Read matt 22:37-40 with understanding. Jesus is speaking in the present tense when the old covenant still existed. Therefore under the old covenant the law hung on love God and love your neighbour, but they were not the only two laws in existence.
I repeat, you have no scripture whatsoever that states my view wrong. I on the other hand have given you scripture and explanation to prove what i believe.
You have given your opinion. . .not what the Scripture states.
The Word is God (Jn 1:1), from always.The Word, the Second Person of the Trinity, has always existed, butElin said:The Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, has always existed.
you've not offered even a single shred of evidence that the Word was always the Son of God.
"Mistranslated". . .how convenient.Unfortunately Oldie, that is the problem !
Whoever wrote the 'gospel' of Matthew is probably quoting Isaiah from the Septuagint - agreed ?
In which the 'alma -young woman' is mistranslated into Greek as 'parthenos- virgin'.
Others will not yield to misunderstanding of the textI can sum up your thee posts here in one. An inability to address points made, blanket denials of the truth written, without being able to provide a single scripture of your own to refute my belief
Concerning Matt22:37-40 it is simple to know what scripture I stating. Did Christ speak in that chapter whilst the old or new covenant existed? And did Christ speak in the present or future tense?
It is proven, but some will never yield to the truth
I've been away for a bit and you already need much correction in relation to this whole eternally begotten nonsense so I really don't have time to address your latest error fully, but I'm wondering if you've ever even read the Bible or if you just regularly spout off the teachings of ignorant men and women?Were the Gentiles living during the time from Moses to Christ conscious of their sin?
They knew nothing of the law.
The law was given to the people of God only, not to the world.
In the words of former President George W. Bush, that's some fuzzy math that you've just employed, Elin.Elin said:The Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, has always existed.The Word is God (Jn 1:1), from always.purgedconscience said:The Word, the Second Person of the Trinity, has always existed, but
you've not offered even a single shred of evidence that the Word was always the Son of God.
The Word became flesh (Jn 1:14).
The Word is the Son of God (Mt 3:17; Jn 11:3).
The Son is God (Heb 1:8), from always.
The Word was always the Son of God.
A difference between God and us is that He's eternal and we're created.A father is anterior or comes before a son in time.
To the contrary: Their relationship is beginningless, endless, and uncreated; though it alsoIt is impossible to have both an eternal Father and an eternal Son.
...Being without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but likened to the Son of God...eternally begotten is a self-refuting lie in that that which is eternal can never be begotten or generated at a point in time. If something or someone has a starting point, then it or he is not eternal.
Son of God is not merely a title. As His name in the Bible, it is His person. His eternal person.I would solemnly advise you to do some research on this whole eternally begotten...to see how it made its way into the Nicene Creed. It didn't get there via the Word of God, but rather via some heretical writings and musings of people like Origen.
Nope. . .the above Scriptures speak for themselves.In the words of former President George W. Bush, that's some fuzzy math that you've just employed, Elin.Elin said:The Word is God (Jn 1:1), from always.
The Word became flesh (Jn 1:14).
The Word is the Son of God (Mt 3:17; Jn 11:3).
The Son is God (Heb 1:8), from always.
The Word was always the Son of God.
Tell me, since you believe that Jesus always was the Son of God,
Explained to you before. . .then was Jesus always subservient to the Father and incapable of doing anything apart from His instruction since eternity past? I mean, that was Jesus' testimony while on earth as the Son of God, wasn't it? If so, then
how was He eternally God Himself?
Physician, heal thy self.You don't know what you're talking about, Elin,
That's interesting that you mention the first point! In regard to this thread: I noticed someone who evidently agrees with me about 'eternal begetting' in regard to His divinity, but who I think stated that the Son submitted to the Father in eternity past. And I was going to contravene that statement. I will have to find that post.is it safe to assume that since you believe that Jesus always was the Son of God that you also believe that He was always in a subservient role to the Father since eternity past or do you also subscribe to two different types of the Son of God in your theology?
Then apparently we feel the same about one another's proofsIn any case, your proof texts greatly fail in their intended applications