"The day of the lord" in the OT is a mistranslation because there is no definite article "the" in any occurrence in the Hebrew. It is simply "day of the lord", or "a day of the lord"
The 1260 days in Revelation are counted as actual days - and, are future. However, the 42 months are year-for-a-day and are past history.Historicism is whack. The day to year principle in Revelation just doesn't work. Imagine giving Christ 1000 years and the beast 1260 years.
Not to mention, as I have quoted before, these guys read a verse about the people who have the mark of the beast having sores on them and interpret it as the french revolution. What a joke.
With that type of interpretation I may as well say it was the plague in Europe that cut the population in half, would be a much better fit atleast, but still unbiblical and out of touch, as all the other vials have to be poured out within that 42 month period as well.
By casting him into the bottomless pit.The only way to stop Satan and his demons from deceiving people for the 1000 years is to seperate him from them.
While he is confined in/to the bottomless pit.Rev 20:3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
He has no access to any human during the 1000 years.
The second resurrection occurs after Satan is loosed and goes out to deceive the nations - the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.Rev 20:7-8
7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, 8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
The unsaved are raised for judgement and Satan uses the opportunity to decieve them again.
This is an unfortunate misconception. There have been many days of the lord. The Hebrew phrase "the day of the lord" does not appear in OT prophecy; it always says "a day of the lord".
The phrase “the day of the Lord” is used often in the Old Testament (e.g. Isaiah 2:12; 13:6, 9; Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3; Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31; 3:14; Amos 5:18,20; Obadiah 15; Zephaniah 1:7,14; Zechariah 14:1; Malachi 4:5) and several times in the New Testament (e.g. Acts 2:20; 1 Corinthians 5:5; 2 Corinthians 1:14; 1 Thessalonians 5:2; 2 Thessalonians 2:2; 2 Peter 3:10). It is also alluded to in other passages (Revelation 6:17; 16:14).
The Old Testament passages dealing with the day of the Lord often convey a sense of imminence, nearness, and expectation: “Wail, for the day of the Lord is near!” (Isaiah 13:6); “For the day is near, even the day of the Lord is near” (Ezekiel 30:3); “Let all who live in the land tremble, for the day of the Lord is coming. It is close at hand” (Joel 2:1); “Multitudes, multitudes in the valley of decision! For the day of the Lord is near in the valley of decision” (Joel 3:14); “Be silent before the Lord God! For the day of the Lord is near” (Zephaniah 1:7). This is because the Old Testament passages referring to the day of the Lord often speak of both a near and a far fulfillment, as does much of Old Testament prophecy. Some Old Testament passages that refer to the day of the Lord describe historical judgments that have already been fulfilled in some sense (Isaiah 13:6-22; Ezekiel 30:2-19; Joel 1:15, 3:14; Amos 5:18-20; Zephaniah 1:14-18), while others refers to divine judgments that will take place toward the end of the age (Joel 2:30-32; Zechariah 14:1; Malachi 4:1, 5).
Nonetheless, I suggest that all of the verses listed on the chart on this web page make reference to the future 'event' that is the Second Coming of Christ:"The day of the lord" in the OT is a mistranslation because there is no definite article "the" in any occurrence in the Hebrew. It is simply "day of the lord", or "a day of the lord"
BTW - the people who have the mark of the beast having sores on them sounds right (Revelation 16:2); however, I do not agree with the french revolution interpretation.Not to mention, as I have quoted before, these guys read a verse about the people who have the mark of the beast having sores on them and interpret it as the french revolution. What a joke.
It does when applied to the things that are not literal days.The day to year principle in Revelation just doesn't work.
Well - 3000 if you include the millennium - and, do not include the unknown amount of time involved with the GWTJ - which will no doubt be quite a large amount of time.it represents a time frame of ~2000 years
For example:I have learned that you must look at it "from God's time frame"
But thats the historicist view of it, look it up on biblehub.BTW - the people who have the mark of the beast having sores on them sounds right (Revelation 16:2); however, I do not agree with the french revolution interpretation.
Actual days:
Revelation 2:10
Revelation 11:3,9,11
Revelation 12:6
Year-for-a-day:
Revelation 11:2
Revelation 12:14
Revelation 13:5
"General" time-period reference:
Revelation 2:13
Revelation 9:6
Revelation 10:7
Revelation 11:6
The 'five months' in Revelation 9 is a literal five months.
The 'thousand years' in Revelation 20 is a literal thousand years.
Ultimately, it is a matter of context - what I believe each verse/passage is talking about - how it fits into the overall picture of things - based on what I have learned from scripture and history.And based on what do you decide which is which?
These 3 (some say there is 4) methods of interpreting prophecy will determine which conclusions you come to.
The 3 distinct schools of Biblical prophetic interpretation make a huge difference in our understanding of truth.
A close examination as to the origins of these different views shall undoubtedly uncover which position is correct.
The next post will explain them in a little detail.