Most people would probably read John 1:1 like this:
In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with the Father, and the Son was the Father
or
In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God
Anyone concerned with monotheism should be counting the gods here, there are two gods. One god too many. From the trinitarian point of view this is also a problem because the trinity teaches that the Father and Son are distinct persons yet there is one essence of God. Meaning God is one essence, not one person. The first way of reading it would fit a Oneness/Modalism interpretation but the problem is that the Son and the Father are clearly differentiated in the Bible, and both are called God and Lord.
Allow me to present what I believe to be the best view and the way an ancient Jew would have understood it. They had at that time aramaic "targums" which are Jewish paraphrases of the Scriptures, and they use MEMRA, the word of the Lord quite a bit.
Few examples:
Genesis 1:27 (Targum Onkelos): “And the Memra[Word] of the LORD created man in His likeness.”
Exodus 19:17: “Moses brought the people out of the camp to meet the Memra[Word] of the LORD.”
So the way I would read the prologue of John 1 is:
- His Word (Logos/Memra) is not a second god but His own self-expression, much like wisdom is personified in the Proverbs.
- That Word was uniquely embodied in Jesus and became flesh, making Him fully divine in function and authority, yet without creating two gods in eternity past and without the need to defend against claims of polytheism.
In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with the Father, and the Son was the Father
or
In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God
Anyone concerned with monotheism should be counting the gods here, there are two gods. One god too many. From the trinitarian point of view this is also a problem because the trinity teaches that the Father and Son are distinct persons yet there is one essence of God. Meaning God is one essence, not one person. The first way of reading it would fit a Oneness/Modalism interpretation but the problem is that the Son and the Father are clearly differentiated in the Bible, and both are called God and Lord.
Allow me to present what I believe to be the best view and the way an ancient Jew would have understood it. They had at that time aramaic "targums" which are Jewish paraphrases of the Scriptures, and they use MEMRA, the word of the Lord quite a bit.
Few examples:
Genesis 1:27 (Targum Onkelos): “And the Memra[Word] of the LORD created man in His likeness.”
Exodus 19:17: “Moses brought the people out of the camp to meet the Memra[Word] of the LORD.”
So the way I would read the prologue of John 1 is:
- His Word (Logos/Memra) is not a second god but His own self-expression, much like wisdom is personified in the Proverbs.
- That Word was uniquely embodied in Jesus and became flesh, making Him fully divine in function and authority, yet without creating two gods in eternity past and without the need to defend against claims of polytheism.