Saved by Grace through Faith

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Matthew 19:25-26
[SUP]25 [/SUP]When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
[SUP]26 [/SUP]But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.
 
seed_time_harvest said:
we were provided the Grace and also the faith needed to receive this Grace.
Do you agree with this?
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Any 'believer' would, 'By Grace through faith and it is s gift from GOD', 'and not by works', of so called, 'good deeds' of the unbelievers around the world, which of carnal/flesh/self's passions and desires loving good. Where Christians who 'go on ahead of CHRIST's word/teaching and do not have GOD are 'alike' in common charity and not of 'AGAPE' of the New Covenant, thus says the LORD of, 'Host in GOD's banquet'.

Rather now 'grow up' to 'focus' on the 'set path' of the 'written' and 'taught' by the HOLY SPIRIT the New Covenant/Testament. That's the same JESUS said, 'narrow road that leads to the kingdom of GOD and it is very difficult to follow, and only a few make it'.

There are 'many of us', who continue in this 'childish' debates about the 'basic knowledge/milk' of the HOLY BIBLE, and continue to challenge one another 'over and over again', in order both can continue to 'remain ignorance' to other Holy Scripture that are also written together and are 'contradicting' their 'Babes in CHRIST' basic knowledge faith of the HOLY BIBLE.

GOD blesses all in the name of LORD JESUS CHRIST.

If anyone want to 'partially practice and abide in JESUS's word/teaching of the New Covenant/Testament', are still 'nearsighted' in faith and not ever able to see 'afar', which what wisely 'leads' one back home, or merely make it in the 'last minute'.
 
Salvation is by grace through faith. The question that presents itself to all of us is "When does this occur, when are we saved by grace through faith?" Many claim that we are saved at the first moment of faith. But is this consistent with the Scriptures?

First, we have several examples of people and even demons who believed but their faith did not appear to be effective. Consider: John 2: 22-25; 12: 42; James 2:19

Second: we are told exactly what happens when we first receive Jesus by believing in His name. We are begotten by God! (John 1: 12, 13) We are not saved but we are given the right to become children of God! The word (the seed) is implanted in our hearts. (James 1: 21) How do we become children of God? By faith through baptism. (Gal. 3: 26, 27) By faith when we are born again of water and Spirit! (John 3:16, 5)

Third: the Scriptures tell us exactly when we are saved by grace through faith! Consider Abraham. He is the one of who it was written, "Then he believed in the Lord; and He reckoned it to him as righteousness." Some claim that this statement was made without regard to any works of faith on the part of Abraham. But when this statement was made Abraham had already obeyed by faith when he was called. (Heb. 11:8) And by faith he lived as an alien in the land of promise. (Heb. 11: 9) But the most convincing evidence was yet to come. By faith when he was tested, offered up Issac. He believed that God was able to raise men even from the dead. (Heb. 11: 17- 19) James, in writing about this event, said Abraham was justified by works (of faith) when he offered up Isaac and as a result of works, faith was perfected! "And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, "And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness," and he was called the friend of God. (James 2: 23) If you recall at the time God said, "FOR NOW I KNOW THAT YOU FEAR GOD, SINCE YOU HAVE NOT WITHHELD YOUR SON, YOUR ONLY SON, FROM ME." (Gen. 22: 12) Faith is perfected when we obey God through love. (Gal. 5: 6) We are saved by grace when we obey God in love. God bless.
 
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SeaBass said:
So if one does not have faith and dies faithless and lost, that would be a moral culpability upon God for failing to give this person faith. Rather, man has been commanded to believe/have faith with that command implying that man has the will, ability and responsibility within himself to believe.

"not of yourselves" does not imply man's inability or has no responsibility to believe but man cannot devise his own plan of salvation to save himself. God devised a plan of salvation by which man could be saved and that plan requires>command men to have faith. This plan is God's gift to ALL men, not some men.

Gill: "(salvation) is not of our desiring nor of our deserving, nor of our performing"
Gill tries to avoid the fact that faith itself is a work, that man is to "work out your own salvation".
Men are commanded to desire the word of God, 1 Pet 2:2; which is able to save your souls, James 1:21.


Calvinism and the gospel do not mix nor match.
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I'm thinking really hard on this post!!
To say that if a man dies faithless and lost would be a moral culpability on God does not seem right to me. He will harden whose heart He will harden and He will make vessels for honor or dishonor and the vessels are not right to say God is unfair. He hardened Pharoahs heart. Is He then culpable? (I'm not saying this isn't a hard thing to accept - it's so hard to accept it can make you almost physically ill to think about it).

The other aspect of your post that I am thinking hard about is that we start with what God has said. Grace through faith and that not of yourselves. Do you think anyone would have been confused and erroneously thought the grace(kindness of God) came from themselves? Or do you think he added the "and that not of yourselves" because they might erroneously believe that the faith was of themselves?

And as to your next to last paragraph, faith is an obedience to me, not a work...it is called elsewhere "the obedience of faith." And in fact, another man separates them when he says faith without works is dead. So to call faith a work doesn't seem right to me...
 
Another thought about sentence construction, either written or spoken.
If I say, please make me a peanut butter and jelly sandwich, but go light on that - would you assume I meant to go light on the peanut butter or on the jelly?

Wouldn't you assume I was referring back to the jelly and NOT to the previous ingredient? I would only confuse and not get my point or my desire across if I expected you to know I was referring back to the peanut butter.

So...saved by grace through faith, and that not of yourselves would be an impossible to understand sentence construction if the last part referred back to the grace. If that were the thing I wanted to convey I would say:you have been saved by grace (and that not of yourselves) through faith.
 
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