Some thoughts on the Sabbath...
- Thread starter Seeker47
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Assumption: Because they kept the Sabbath after Jesus died the Sabbath remained as a commandment.
Reality: "According to the commandment" is the key that unlocks this. One should ask "Why is there need to write 'according to the commandment' if it is still active? Would not it have been understood by all, that resting on the Sabbath was expected? The reason it is noted is because, although by the death of Jesus the Law had been fulfilled, the disciples still operated according to their tradition: by keeping the law of Sinai. Christ had not yet risen to confirm that His death had been received as sufficient payment for the curse of the Law for all men.
Assumption: Because Jesus mentioned the Sabbath as a future reality, then the Law of Sinai remains in effect.
Reality: For the disciples, who were all Jews at that time, working on the Sabbath within their communities was to invite persecution from the other Jews. This would add to their tribulations had they need to flee on the day Jews observe the day of no work.
No one knows what the specific name was and that can be one of the problems translators face.
The law remains in effect for who?
Israel that received the written law at Mt Sinai and agreed to the covenant law.
I know that Egypt was never given that covenant law.
Which country is bound by the law?
You need to support with evidence that the Gentile nations were included in the covenant law of Mt Sinai.
Did Rome have a Federal Sabbath law?
One needs to be living in Israel and be circumcised in order to obey the law.
That's what the law states and do not contradict the scripture, TMS.
Do not transgress the law.
You need to prove that all people are not able to be part of the spiritual Israel today.
Prove that gentiles are not inwardly Jews.
You need to prove that the same 10 commandments given to the Israel nation are not part of the new covenant.
The LXX (Septuagint) is not the word of God...
...and Jerome's Latin Vulgate is corrupt.
Not an assumption.... why would Jesus say it if it is an assumption?
Did Jesus encourage them to follow tradition rather then the truth.
I see all these assumptions on your side..
I have evidence.
Because the Gentiles were never told that they are under the law in the New testament.
You keep quoting Exodus 20 and you have been taught that the Gentile nations, were under that law.
This is contrary to the covenant law that YHWH established with Israel at Mt Sinai.
You know what the scripture states.
Romans 9:4-5
Who are Israelites, to whom belongs the adoption as sons, and the glory and the covenants and the giving
of the Law and the temple service and the promises, whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according
to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever.
Don't tell me that the Gentile nations were under the covenant law of Mt Sinai.
You have been refuted by Romans 9:4-5
How do you know what text is corrupt and which is not?
Are you an expert on Hebrew and Greek and a thousand manuscripts used to translate the Bible?
Or do you base your opinion on some person who claims to know something.
You may not be aware but no one claims an entire Bible is corrupt rather the strong debate. Is concerned with
additional verses and poorly translated verses.
The Bible
In biblical scholarship, there is strong debate over specific verses or passages rather than whole translations being declared outright "corrupt". Scholars use a field of study called textual criticism to compare thousands of ancient manuscripts. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]
- The Consensus: Most scholars agree that while hand-copying introduced minor errors (like spelling or accidental omissions), the core message of the scripture is extremely well-preserved. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]
- The Debate: Scholars fiercely debate specific interpolations (verses added later by scribes). Notable examples debated in academic circles include the ending of the Gospel of Mark (Mark 16:9–20), and the story of the woman caught in adultery (John 7:53–8:11). Scholars like Dr. Bart Ehrman have argued that some scribes altered verses to counter early heresies. [1, 2, 3, 4]
- Translations: Modern English Bibles (like the ESV, NIV, or NRSV) are not considered corrupt; rather, they employ different translation philosophies, prioritizing either "word-for-word" accuracy or "thought-for-thought" readability
In God's eyes they did stop being Jews.
But racially, still Jews.
How they are to worship? No longer Jews.
We must learn the Word accurately to catch up with what already God knows.
There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female,
for you are all one in Christ Jesus. Galatians 3:28
Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away;
behold, all things have become new. 2 Corinthians 5:17
I was brought up a Jew.
........
Rom 2:26-29
26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision? 27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law? 28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: 29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
I see us as one in Christ
You keep dividing the Gentiles and Jews so that you can avoid keeping the law.
God's law is for all God's people.