lol argument very weakyour and ye are expressing two different types. Jesus was referring to beings other than God being described as gods, not to men. The word of God came to angels as well as men.
Yawn. Ignore..........
lol argument very weakyour and ye are expressing two different types. Jesus was referring to beings other than God being described as gods, not to men. The word of God came to angels as well as men.
How does this verse say they were not angels?
Paul warns us in Colossians 2:18 not to be deceived by those who worship angels or to worship angels.
This goes hand in hand with Gen 6 & Jude for those willing to see it.
Good. This is absolutely correct. The giants were already in the land and these 'sons of God' (regardless of who you take this to be) took daughters of THESE and the line of the Nephilim continued. The presence of the 'sons of God' were not causal to the appearance of the Nephilim, they were incidental to it.
I know. I keep seeing that but no one has provided the Greek text from which they claim to have gotten this quote. But, I can assure you, this translation does not come from any copy of the byzantine text I have ever seen.
Ok. Here is the point I want you to consider.
The passages in Job are used to argue that 'sons of God' can only refer to fallen angels. Jude 6-7 is then tortured to make it say that the sin of those fallen angels was that of sexual immorality. THEN they claim that because 'sons of God' in Job 1 & 2 refers to angels this also means that 'sons of God' in Gen 6 must also refer to angels. The argument is then made that the sons of Seth cannot be the 'sons of God' because they were evil. If the sons of Seth cannot be 'sons of God' because they were evil, then by what possible rule of interpretation does not claim that fallen angels are 'sons of God' EVEN THOUGH they were evil.
I really not not know what this has to do with Gen 6.
Good. This is absolutely correct. The giants were already in the land and these 'sons of God' (regardless of who you take this to be) took daughters of THESE and the line of the Nephilim continued. The presence of the 'sons of God' were not causal to the appearance of the Nephilim, they were incidental to it.
Ok. Here is the point I want you to consider.
The passages in Job are used to argue that 'sons of God' can only refer to fallen angels. Jude 6-7 is then tortured to make it say that the sin of those fallen angels was that of sexual immorality. THEN they claim that because 'sons of God' in Job 1 & 2 refers to angels this also means that 'sons of God' in Gen 6 must also refer to angels. The argument is then made that the sons of Seth cannot be the 'sons of God' because they were evil. If the sons of Seth cannot be 'sons of God' because they were evil, then by what possible rule of interpretation does not claim that fallen angels are 'sons of God' EVEN THOUGH they were evil.
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trofimus, I am going to ask a simple question and I want you to give me an honest answer. Why is it so important to you that 'son of God' in either Gen 6 or in Job be angels? There has to be some reason behind this insistence.
I am not sure what you mean by "so important". Its a discussion forum thread, so I discuss itLike everybody else here...
I could ask you the same question, why is it so important for you that they were not angels![]()
trofimus, I am going to ask a simple question and I want you to give me an honest answer. Why is it so important to you that 'son of God' in either Gen 6 or in Job be angels? There has to be some reason behind this insistence.
Fair enough. Personally, I have no preference. I do not care whether the inference is to men to angels. I can only go where the preponderance of evidence from scripture takes me.
I have read Augustin now, regarding this topic and I must admit he has some good points.
But it seems to me he is working with two groups of fallen angels theory, not sure why or where does he specifies it more (and therefore he explains Jude like not being about the fallen angels of satan)
Well, I have never read Augustin's arguments on this or on anything else for that matter. I do not consider him an authoritative source.
Who is an authoritative source for you? Except of the 66 books![]()
Only the Bible. Truth resides ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY in the language of the biblical text. The Bible is the ONLY representation of the mind of God.
So no teachers for the Church? At all?
LOL. You know that is not what I said or meant. All teachers must be weighed in the balance of scripture. It is scripture, not the teacher that is the authority.