Oops! I guess I spoke too soon. You know I can’t agree with salvation by Holy Spirit baptism. And those 3000 Jews on the day of Pentecost were from “all nations under heaven, verse 5. So, I don’t think they were baptized into a local congregation. Jesus said He added them to His church ( universal). I’ve already explained why the baptism in verse 38 could not have been Holy Spirit baptism and since the text does not indicate that anyone was baptized with the Holy Spirit but the apostles who spoke in tongues, I really can’t understand how you think 3000 Jews were baptized with the Holy Spirit. That is a stretch and has no foundation in this passage. We may have to agree to disagree.
1. "You know I can’t agree with salvation by Holy Spirit baptism.":
I think you choose not to agree with the TOP regarding the role of the HS in salvation per 1Cor. 12:13, Rom. 8:9-17, etc.
2. "And those 3000 Jews on the day of Pentecost were from “all nations under heaven, verse 5. So, I don’t think they were baptized into a local congregation. Jesus said He added them to His church ( universal).":
Church may refer both to Christ's universal body and to a local body of believers.
3. "I’ve already explained why the baptism in verse 38 could not have been Holy Spirit baptism and since the text does not indicate that anyone was baptized with the Holy Spirit but the apostles who spoke in tongues, I really can’t understand how you think 3000 Jews were baptized with the Holy Spirit. That is a stretch and has no foundation in this passage. We may have to agree to disagree.":
And I have opined that it is a problematic hermeneutic to give precedence to historical rather than to didactic passages in the NT text when seeking to understand normative doctrine. Regarding the converts in Acts 2:41-44, it says they were baptized and then were together.
Agreed? Or still too soon?