The Gospels and the Mystery

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Jan 13, 2016
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#61
Nope. Continuation theology. When a covenant ends, there needs to be a way forward.
BTW...this was always the plan. Everything in the new covenant is found in the OT. Be glad to show it to you if like.
God is not through with his physical people Israel. He has promised them a physical kingdom and he will deliver.
 
Jan 13, 2016
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#62
The word there is aiōn that is end of the AGE, not world. This is the perfect example of where King James Onlyism bites you in the backside. The translation of this word to "World" is a HUGE reason the pre-trib rapture gained so much footing. And it you take this version and lift it so high that it leaves you no room to accept the truth. This was the END of the Mosaic age, the age of the temple and animal sacrifice. You can never except this truth because you're too deep in the KJV only deception to look at the whole thing in truth. Perfect example of the danger of KJV only doctrine.
I’m glad you corrected the word once again.🙄 The word is world. When the world as we know it ends with the Lord will come. Thats literally the context. The sign of thy coming.

Matthew 24:
3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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#63
God is not through with his physical people Israel. He has promised them a physical kingdom and he will deliver.
He gave them a physical kingdom. Read Joshua 21. He gave them the land promised to them. They lost it due to their unfaithfulness. The only covenant in place is the new covenant. There is no provision in the new covenant wherein God deals with nations. Is God going to provide another covenant?
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#64
It is the same gospel at two different stages of salvation history and from two different viewpoints. Different emphases produce different approaches. You throw too much at your fellow forum participants. Take one or two contrasts and their passages for discussion. I can't deal with all that you have said.
Would you mind explaining for us all what you mean by two different stages? Where did that come from? Salvation is in stages? Please elaborate.

MM
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#65
The word there is aiōn that is end of the AGE, not world. This is the perfect example of where King James Onlyism bites you in the backside. The translation of this word to "World" is a HUGE reason the pre-trib rapture gained so much footing. And it you take this version and lift it so high that it leaves you no room to accept the truth. This was the END of the Mosaic age, the age of the temple and animal sacrifice. You can never except this truth because you're too deep in the KJV only deception to look at the whole thing in truth. Perfect example of the danger of KJV only doctrine.
Lots of accusation, but no substance to back any of it.

MM
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#66
Grace and works do not belong with one another, for works do not compliment, strengthen nor add to salvation by grace.

When anyone tries to couple works with grace, that is a violation of the law of non-contradiction. Works simply cannot bolster that which is bestowed on the basis of what is UNMERITED. For those who think otherwise, I'd really like to see an explanation from scripture, sticking to context and language consistency.

Works, however, are how we BUILD after we are saved by grace, and are a natural outflow from true salvation already bestowed.

1 Corinthians 3:10-13
10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.
11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
12 Now if any man build upon this foundation gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble;
13 Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.

2 Corinthians 1:22 Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.

Ephesians 1:13-14 In whom ye also [trusted] (not worked, but trusted), after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
14 Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.

So, we see here how one's works do not at all seal us, for the EARNEST is bestowed upon us on the basis of no merit of our own. The thought of works, therefore, as some sort of enhancement of grace unto salvation, it's meaningless and contradictory. Works are good and necessary for reward, but never for earning nor perfecting what was unmerited. That some just can't get that, it totally escapes me.

MM
 
Nov 17, 2015
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#67
Sylvanus, and even Peter, didn't know anything about the gospel of grace until it was revealed through Paul:

Ephesians 3:1-7
1 For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,
4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.

Paul and Barnabus are the apostles (plural) who worked, by assignment from the Lord, to the Gentiles. Peter was not assigned to preach to the Gentiles, although he did preach to a few of the Gentiles on one occasion. After that one time we have no record of him doing so again.

Notice, though, the exclusiveness of the revelation. Paul did not write about the revelation being made to "us" or to "them," instead his pronouns were exclusive to himself.

Romans 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.

Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

MM
So, in essence, you are saying they did, but it was first given to Paul. This idea is an assumption. Look, the ‘grace of God’ (i.e. present tense) is revealed to the Holy Apostles, including previous Apostles (Peter and co.), and then to Apostle Paul. Ephesians 3 speaks of the mystery of Christ and that Gentile believers will be “of the same body of Christ and partakers by the gospel. “ This of course does not speak of another body or another gospel.

To reiterate, it wasn't Paul only- Barnabus was also given this grace. The point is that the Apostles have the same message of the gospel of Christ but in different areas. Peter and Co. centered on the Jewish people while Paul is on the Gentiles. Yet, they(Petros and Co.) did, as in the case of Cornelious. The issue is not about the Jew or Gentile for in fact the gospel is to the Jew first and also to the Greek Romans 1:16
King James Bible
For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Interesting “my gospel” means he was only given and applied it personally. The scripture or Paul did not say “..my gospel which given to me only”. Exclusivity is just an assumption. When it’s given to you it’s yours, but to think he alone was given is false. The Bible gets plainer when it says “revealed unto his holy Apostles” (plural). The true grace of God is also given or revealed to Silvanus and others, especially other Apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ. Peter says this is the true grace where YE (Plural) stands, whereas you are in your opinion to do so with exclusivism when the Bible did not say it. Wrong interpretation happens If one is to ignore many Bible verses about the gospel truth giving eternal life. A wrong division leads you to a wrong interpretation.
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#68
So, in essence, you are saying they did, but it was first given to Paul. This idea is an assumption.
In reality, it is not an assumption. Scripture says this:

Ephesians 3:1-7
1 For this cause I Paul(not WE, but I), the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward (not to the other eleven, not yet, otherwise he would said US)
3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; as I wrote afore in few words,
4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ
5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles (Paul and Barnabas) and prophets by the Spirit;
6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.

Look, the ‘grace of God’ (i.e. present tense) is revealed to the Holy Apostles, including previous Apostles (Peter and co.), and then to Apostle Paul.
Where's your proof? Here's mine:

Romans 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.

Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

1 Timothy 1:16 Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting.

See that? The grace for salvation was shown unto Paul first because the mystery (hidden wisdom that was held in God Himself) revealed beforehand would have kept Satan from pushing for the crucifixion of Jesus had Satan and his princes known of this mystery revealed to Pail FIRST.

Ephesians 3 speaks of the mystery of Christ and that Gentile believers will be “of the same body of Christ and partakers by the gospel. “ This of course does not speak of another body or another gospel.
I've said it before, that both Jews and Gentiles are saved by the same Gospel, which is NOT the same Gospel preached by Christ and His apostles until after the apostles were made aware of the reality of the dispensation of grace.

Paul revealed His Gospel to the other eleven when he went to Jerusalem. The Spirit of the Lord did not reveal the mystery to Peter after His receiving of Holy Spirit, as can be seen here:

Acts 2:37-38
37 Now when they heard [this], they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men [and] brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

That Gospel was true for them at that time, but would change in a few years after the mystery was revealed to Paul first, and Paul's Gospel is not the the same Gospel preached by Peter, as can be seen here:

1 Corinthians 15:1-4
1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

There's nothing in the content of Paul's Gospel demanding repentance, and there's nothing in there about being water baptized. Why? Works are no longer elements that characterize nor define the grace of God toward us unto salvation. Some people, because of intellectual dishonesty or wishful thinking, whatever it may be, refuse to acknowledge the differences in the content of the two Gospels. They refuse to accept that not everything spoken in the New Testament applies to all people at all times. James spoke much about how WORKS justify a man, where Paul clearly stated that FAITH justifies a man.

So, the ignorant and/or dishonest narrative remains a strong inclination out there that the two Gospels are one and the same, which is true in relation to it being about the same Christ, but the content is different, and THAT is where some seem to have the greatest problem. There's this strange spirit out there that seems to drive them to the idea that the Lord would NEVER change His ways of dealing with mankind when it comes to salvation, as if the Lord were somehow bound to their personal whims for how it all should be.

That is such a denial of reality, for if only they would give thought to the inclusion of the Law of Moses, that was a change, as was the Kingdom Gospel, and then the Gospel of Grace, and then the Kingdom Gospel will once again be reinstated after the rapture of the Church right before the seventieth heptad of Jacob's Trouble. They will have to endure unto the end so that they SHALL be saved at some future point.

What about YOU. Are YOU sealed by Holy Spirit unto salvation, standing within the earnest of His salvation, and are you a new creation? Those who think that they can lose that and then regain it, they are those who lack understanding for the impossibility of becoming UNborn again, and UNsealed by Holy Spirit. The Kingdom Gospel requires endurance unto the end because Christ cannot be placed unto the second shame for them.

Those who claim to have been saved in the tribulation, but who later take the mark or worship the image of the beast, they will be lost forever. THAT is why the Kingdom Gospel involves conditional elements, and that sets it apart from the Gospel of Grace.

Do YOU actually think that you can somehow add to unmerited favor (grace) by way of YOUR works? I'm not talking about reward, but salvation itself.

MM
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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3,625
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#69
So, in essence, you are saying they did, but it was first given to Paul. This idea is an assumption. Look, the ‘grace of God’ (i.e. present tense) is revealed to the Holy Apostles, including previous Apostles (Peter and co.), and then to Apostle Paul. Ephesians 3 speaks of the mystery of Christ and that Gentile believers will be “of the same body of Christ and partakers by the gospel. “ This of course does not speak of another body or another gospel.

To reiterate, it wasn't Paul only- Barnabus was also given this grace. The point is that the Apostles have the same message of the gospel of Christ but in different areas. Peter and Co. centered on the Jewish people while Paul is on the Gentiles. Yet, they(Petros and Co.) did, as in the case of Cornelious. The issue is not about the Jew or Gentile for in fact the gospel is to the Jew first and also to the Greek Romans 1:16
King James Bible
For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Interesting “my gospel” means he was only given and applied it personally. The scripture or Paul did not say “..my gospel which given to me only”. Exclusivity is just an assumption. When it’s given to you it’s yours, but to think he alone was given is false. The Bible gets plainer when it says “revealed unto his holy Apostles” (plural). The true grace of God is also given or revealed to Silvanus and others, especially other Apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ. Peter says this is the true grace where YE (Plural) stands, whereas you are in your opinion to do so with exclusivism when the Bible did not say it. Wrong interpretation happens If one is to ignore many Bible verses about the gospel truth giving eternal life. A wrong division leads you to a wrong interpretation.
Whatever Paul preached...was not made known before him. It was a mystery up until Paul preached the message. But we all know what Paul preached.
 
Feb 17, 2023
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#70
When we look at the content within the Kingdom Gospel as preached by Jesus and afterward, we see that salvation was based upon believing Jesus was Israel’s Messiah (Matthew 16:16, John 11:27, Acts 8:37). No problem with that, right?

However, dare we look at the Kingdom Gospel carefully and honestly, we see there is no mention of believing in Jesus’ death and resurrection, even after His resurrection. Some might say that the resurrection was mentioned in that Gospel preached by Peter and the others, but they will search in vain to find it.

Peter himself, while up on the balcony, didn't tell the Jews on that amazing day of Pentecost that they must believe Jesus died for them and rose from the dead. For those who doubt, please go and read it for yourself. He told them to repent and be baptized (Acts 2:38).

As a matter of fact, right after Paul was saved, he too preached this message: Jesus was the Son of God (Acts 9:20). Paul did not begin to preach his gospel (Christ died for us and rose from the dead) until after he returned from Arabia!

Why not?

Mainly because God had not yet revealed the mystery of the body of Christ that would include both Jew and Gentile under the Gospel of Grace. It wasn't until after Paul returned from his three years in Arabia that he preached this very gospel. During that time in Arabia, the ascended Lord revealed directly to Paul the wondrous meaning of His death and resurrection (Galatians 1:16-19, 2:1-2) in relation to both Jew and Gentile after having set aside Israel and the Kingdom Gospel. This all was AFTER James had written his epistle to the twelve tribes scattered abroad (James 1:1).

MM
So, what conclusion would you draw from your analysis? What difference does it make?
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#71
Here's another set of items that prove the Kingdom Gospel is no longer active and relevant for us today:

Mark 16:14-18
14 Afterward he appeared unto the eleven as they sat at meat, and upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they believed not them which had seen him after he was risen.
15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.

So, those who claim it's all one Gospel, and therefore all of this is relevant today, why don't those who believe this do these things? Are they not true believers? Are they damned for not being able to do these things? If the Kingdom Gospel preached by Christ and the apostles is still the means for salvation, then why can't they do these things after their water baptism?

The reason is simple...the Kingdom Gospel was put on hold to make room for the Gospel of Grace because of Israel's failure to remain the means through which salvation could come unto the Gentiles. Israel killed Christ, and then she stoned Stephen, after which was ushered in the Gospel of Grace in the place of Israel having been set aside, with Gentiles being brought in, as the scriptures declare.

So, claiming that these things were no longer necessary with the writing of epistles, that's an thing of convenience given that the Lord placed no ending date or event whereby those things would become nonfunctional. Therein is why the "setting aside" is the best explanation for the lack of evidence for the continuance of the Kingdom Gospel being with us today. Revelation speaks of the saints in the tribulation doing wondrous things in the first half before the man of sin is given power over them, to defeat and kill them.

Amazing indeed is the word of God when it's read for what it says, and people look at the evidence of history coupled with the scripture to see a more complete picture of reality.

MM
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#72
So, what conclusion would you draw from your analysis? What difference does it make?
What difference does it make? The difference is HUGE!

It is not all one Gospel throughout the NT other than that Christ is at the center of both. That is the final analysis.

Jesus, when He preached about the Kingdom, He said nothing about His death and resurrection, and neither did the apostles...even AFTER His ascension. That's another biggie that so many belittle, as if it's inconsequential. Where is the death, burial and resurrection in Peter's preaching of that Gospel right after being filled with Holy Spirit?

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Water baptism was necessary for remission of sins. Some have feebly tried to argue that the baptism of which Jesus and Peter spoke was the "baptism of Holy Spirit," but that is not what was said, for the baptism is what THEN brought about receiving the gift (indwelling) of Holy Spirit.

Remembering that the apostles in Jerusalem were somewhat shocked that the Gentiles were speaking in tongues and manifesting the other things spoken by Christ to Israel, we are left with even more glaring evidence for the differences in the Gospels.

MM
 
Nov 17, 2015
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#73
In reality, it is not an assumption. Scripture says this:

Ephesians 3:1-7
1 For this cause I Paul(not WE, but I), the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward (not to the other eleven, not yet, otherwise he would said US)
3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; as I wrote afore in few words,
4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ
5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles (Paul and Barnabas) and prophets by the Spirit;
6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.



Where's your proof? Here's mine:

Romans 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.

Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

1 Timothy 1:16 Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting.

See that? The grace for salvation was shown unto Paul first because the mystery (hidden wisdom that was held in God Himself) revealed beforehand would have kept Satan from pushing for the crucifixion of Jesus had Satan and his princes known of this mystery revealed to Pail FIRST.



I've said it before, that both Jews and Gentiles are saved by the same Gospel, which is NOT the same Gospel preached by Christ and His apostles until after the apostles were made aware of the reality of the dispensation of grace.

Paul revealed His Gospel to the other eleven when he went to Jerusalem. The Spirit of the Lord did not reveal the mystery to Peter after His receiving of Holy Spirit, as can be seen here:

Acts 2:37-38
37 Now when they heard [this], they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men [and] brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

That Gospel was true for them at that time, but would change in a few years after the mystery was revealed to Paul first, and Paul's Gospel is not the the same Gospel preached by Peter, as can be seen here:

1 Corinthians 15:1-4
1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

There's nothing in the content of Paul's Gospel demanding repentance, and there's nothing in there about being water baptized. Why? Works are no longer elements that characterize nor define the grace of God toward us unto salvation. Some people, because of intellectual dishonesty or wishful thinking, whatever it may be, refuse to acknowledge the differences in the content of the two Gospels. They refuse to accept that not everything spoken in the New Testament applies to all people at all times. James spoke much about how WORKS justify a man, where Paul clearly stated that FAITH justifies a man.

So, the ignorant and/or dishonest narrative remains a strong inclination out there that the two Gospels are one and the same, which is true in relation to it being about the same Christ, but the content is different, and THAT is where some seem to have the greatest problem. There's this strange spirit out there that seems to drive them to the idea that the Lord would NEVER change His ways of dealing with mankind when it comes to salvation, as if the Lord were somehow bound to their personal whims for how it all should be.

That is such a denial of reality, for if only they would give thought to the inclusion of the Law of Moses, that was a change, as was the Kingdom Gospel, and then the Gospel of Grace, and then the Kingdom Gospel will once again be reinstated after the rapture of the Church right before the seventieth heptad of Jacob's Trouble. They will have to endure unto the end so that they SHALL be saved at some future point.

What about YOU. Are YOU sealed by Holy Spirit unto salvation, standing within the earnest of His salvation, and are you a new creation? Those who think that they can lose that and then regain it, they are those who lack understanding for the impossibility of becoming UNborn again, and UNsealed by Holy Spirit. The Kingdom Gospel requires endurance unto the end because Christ cannot be placed unto the second shame for them.

Those who claim to have been saved in the tribulation, but who later take the mark or worship the image of the beast, they will be lost forever. THAT is why the Kingdom Gospel involves conditional elements, and that sets it apart from the Gospel of Grace.

Do YOU actually think that you can somehow add to unmerited favor (grace) by way of YOUR works? I'm not talking about reward, but salvation itself.

MM
You are talking about the obvious, Paul is personally addressing the Gentile/Ephesians believers. Nothing has been said of exclusivity. However, before going to the Gentiles, he had gone to the Jews first, even desiring and praying for them to be saved Romans 10:1 Now, it was just given to him, hence, anyone can own it but not to him only.

Sorry, man, but Paul’s Gospel is Christ’s. He only received it. He is only a recipient. I'm afraid I have to disagree with your assessment regarding the gospel of salvation. Paul confirms that even Andronicus and Junia, were saved before him. Paul confirmed they were IN CHRIST before him. So you have another story against what Paul told us.
Romans 16:7
Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,274
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#74
I see hyper - dispensationalism still rears its ugly head now and again 🙄
 
Feb 8, 2021
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#75
You are talking about the obvious, Paul is personally addressing the Gentile/Ephesians believers. Nothing has been said of exclusivity. However, before going to the Gentiles, he had gone to the Jews first, even desiring and praying for them to be saved Romans 10:1 Now, it was just given to him, hence, anyone can own it but not to him only.

Sorry, man, but Paul’s Gospel is Christ’s. He only received it. He is only a recipient. I'm afraid I have to disagree with your assessment regarding the gospel of salvation. Paul confirms that even Andronicus and Junia, were saved before him. Paul confirmed they were IN CHRIST before him. So you have another story against what Paul told us.
Romans 16:7
Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me.
There were many people saved before Paul. That's not what's at issue. If you believe the content of the Kingdom Gospel is the same as the Gospel of Grace, then what else can be said, for if you ignore the differences in content, then that's like saying that my Nissan is exactly the same as a Bentley in content, and yet their parts are not interchangeable.

MM
 
Nov 17, 2015
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#76
There were many people saved before Paul. That's not what's at issue. If you believe the content of the Kingdom Gospel is the same as the Gospel of Grace, then what else can be said, for if you ignore the differences in content, then that's like saying that my Nissan is exactly the same as a Bentley in content, and yet their parts are not interchangeable.

MM
“IN Christ” is the ultimate result of believing the gospel of salvation. This was shown by Apostle Paul in Eph. 1:10-13 and yet Andronicus and Julia being among the apostles were already IN Christ before Paul’s conversion. Paul had that testimony and perhaps you wanted to eliminate it. There's no other way they got saved if not the gospel of Christ, otherwise they were saved by another gospel or another Christ. Paul should have accursed them but he did not.
 

Musicmaster

Active member
Feb 8, 2021
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#77
“IN Christ” is the ultimate result of believing the gospel of salvation. This was shown by Apostle Paul in Eph. 1:10-13 and yet Andronicus and Julia being among the apostles were already IN Christ before Paul’s conversion. Paul had that testimony and perhaps you wanted to eliminate it. There's no other way they got saved if not the gospel of Christ, otherwise they were saved by another gospel or another Christ. Paul should have accursed them but he did not.
If I may, the OT believers were also in Christ before Paul, so that doesn't really mean anything in this discussion so far as I can tell. The OT believers were also in Christ. We know this because of the word of God:

1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

We were all in Adam when lost in sin, from Adam himself to the last person to be alive on this earth, but all who are in Christ, from Adam to that last person alive who is in Christ, we ALL shall live.

Also, being of note among the apostles, that too is a trumped up, blown out of proportion concept when they say that those others were also apostles. I am of not among the executives of the place where I work, but that doesn't make me an executive in the hierarchy.

MM