The Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' (ruah/ruach) are feminine nouns.

[MalCognito]

Given that the Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' are feminine nouns, wouldn't it reasonable to assume Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'She' instead of 'He' in His message during the Last Supper? He certainly did not give His Seder message in koine Greek. I also refer to Prov 4:5-9, where Wisdom is referred to as 'She.'

 

[Cameron143]

This will be fun.

 

[ChristRoseFromTheDead]

I believe the neutral gender is used for the holy spirit in the NT Greek manuscripts

 

[ChristRoseFromTheDead]

But yes you have a point. Understanding, knowledge and wisdom are all feminine in the Hebrew, which means the spirit of understanding, the spirit of knowledge and the spirit of wisdom are feminine. There are 4 other spirits, but I forget what gender they are.

 

[Doll]

Given that the Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' are feminine nouns, wouldn't it reasonable to assume Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'She' instead of 'He' in His message during the Last Supper? He certainly did not give His Seder message in koine Greek. I also refer to Prov 4:5-9, where Wisdom is referred to as 'She.'

When you enter a realm of a strong patriarchy the idea of feminine power being relative to God becomes impossible.

God is a spirit. Not a man....

God created man and woman in the God's image and likeness.

 

[tablet123]

Given that the Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' are feminine nouns, wouldn't it reasonable to assume Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'She' instead of 'He' in His message during the Last Supper? He certainly did not give His Seder message in koine Greek. I also refer to Prov 4:5-9, where Wisdom is referred to as 'She.'

The only thing that separates a man and a woman is the flesh but the spirit and soul are the same.

When they put off the flesh and receive a glorified body they are equal for there is no difference of the glorified body.

That is why the Bible says that a male and female are equal in the Lord.

A man and a woman do not have a gender in the spiritual realm in heaven.

That is why Jesus said there is no marriage in heaven but the saints are like the angels.

Because angels do not have a gender and they have masculine names and have the masculine pronoun he because they are greater than people.

But when the saints get to heaven the saints will be greater than angels.

So God probably does not have a gender and has a masculine name and has the masculine pronoun He because he is the greatest of all.

The Bible identifies Him as a He so why would people think She.

Gender might only refer to the flesh.

Old Testament.

Spirit and spirit.

rûach
roo'-akh
From H7306; wind; by resemblance breath, that is, a sensible (or even violent) exhalation; figuratively life, anger, unsubstantiality; by extension a region of the sky; by resemblance spirit, but only of a rational being (including its expression and functions): - air, anger, blast, breath, X cool, courage, mind, X quarter, X side, spirit ([-ual]), tempest, X vain, ([whirl-]) wind (-y).

New Testament.

Spirit and spirit.

pneuma
pnyoo'-mah
From G4154; a current of air, that is, breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively a spirit, that is, (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, daemon, or (divine) God, Christ’s spirit, the Holy spirit: - ghost, life, spirit (-ual, -ually), mind. Compare G5590.

 

[GWH]

Given that the Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' are feminine nouns, wouldn't it reasonable to assume Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'She' instead of 'He' in His message during the Last Supper? He certainly did not give His Seder message in koine Greek. I also refer to Prov 4:5-9, where Wisdom is referred to as 'She.'

My understanding is that in languages having gendered nouns, there is no necessary connection with sex.

 

[CommodoreTeach]

Given that the Hebrew and Aramaic words for 'spirit' are feminine nouns, wouldn't it reasonable to assume Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'She' instead of 'He' in His message during the Last Supper? He certainly did not give His Seder message in koine Greek. I also refer to Prov 4:5-9, where Wisdom is referred to as 'She.'

No. To better understand this, it would be the same as assuming that a foreskin (i.e. in relation to circumcision) is a female body part, and the womb and breasts are male body parts, given:

1) The word for foreskin, עָרְלָה (orlah), is a feminine noun. This is indicated by the ending "-ָה" (ah) which is a common marker of feminine nouns in Hebrew.
2) The word for womb, רֶחֶם (rechem) is a masculine noun (grammatically) although obviously referring to a female body part.
3) The word for breasts, שדיים (shadayim) is grammatically masculine, but again, refers to another rather female part of human anatomy.

So unless you think the ancient world was as confused about sex as some of the far-left insane are today, the gender of words is not necessarily related to the sex of what the words are describing.