The word of God is pure, holy and without error. Wouldn't you agree? Would God speak a word that is in error or not the right word?
The King James Only Debate
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The word of God is pure, holy and without error. Wouldn't you agree? Would God speak a word that is in error or not the right word?
I believe the KJV is inspied because I have never found it to be wrong, words are written in such a way as the number of words used reflect the number meaning of the passage. Words like Easter are used to denote a distinct difference in that occurrence pascha. The list goes on and on.
There's no way the KJV translators could purposely make that happen and maintain the message. Either Satan or God inspired them because man is not able to do what has been done in the KJV without spirit influence.
You don't need any bible to be saved other than I'm a sinner and Jesus paid for my sins.
The KJV is a rock of offence, people are going to be broken by it as I was or they're going to stumble over it. I stumbled over it for many years but it eventually broke me.
Actually there is no Christian who would just came and said this, just for the sake of it.
It is virtually always a reaction to your extreme position - KJV Only and KJV Perfect. And that every change of KJV words must be from satan.
We have the Word of God, it can be trusted. But the KJV is not it from 100%.
The word of God does not have errors. KJV has errors. Translations have errors. Manuscripts have errors. Quotations have errors.
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When you're trying to understanding the meaning of "kingdom of heaven", what book do you go to?
Any good translation will do the job.
If you are asking more generally:
First I would go to google and try to find all verses regarding the topic in the Bible (it does not always have to be in the exact form)
Then I would read them in the Bible.
Then I would google some articles about the topic.
Then maybe some commentaries or pararalel Scriptures like biblehub.com
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By your definition, the word of God has or has no errors? It can be trusted? What can be trusted? Where is it?
Whats the problem? The Galatians were being fed a line of bull that they called the gospel, which was not a the real gospel at all. How did the English fail to convey the meaning of the passage?
By my definition, there is a difference between the word of God and the record of this word (manuscripts, translations, editions, all human work related to it).
It is in every good translation. It is closer in the original language.
Would you consider the "extra verses" in the KJV as part of your study.... I think you believe those words were added later and are not really part of scripture.
Yes, I would consider various readings. But if the reading will be only in KJV or NKJV, it was probably added later and was not in the originals.
If I would have other verses saying the same, no problem. If I would not have any other verses saying the same, I would consider it, but I would not build any big theology construction on it.
If the verse would be really vital for some reason, I would do some study on why it is not in the better editions, what are fors and cons.
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And since we don't have the originals, then we have nothing certain to turn to that we can trust?
I have heard that the Alexandrian text type is against the deity of Christ, because:
TR: God was manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit
AT: He who was revealed in the flesh, was vindicated in the Spirit
Now I have accidentally read this verse:
TR: The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
AT: The only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
Yeah. Even though these types differ on some places and AT is generally shorter, it cannot be said it is somehow "corrupted against the deity of Christ".
Our picture must be always complex, not derived from few verses we picked up.
TR: God was manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit
AT: He who was revealed in the flesh, was vindicated in the Spirit
Now I have accidentally read this verse:
TR: The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
AT: The only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
Yeah. Even though these types differ on some places and AT is generally shorter, it cannot be said it is somehow "corrupted against the deity of Christ".
Our picture must be always complex, not derived from few verses we picked up.
Please brother, let me remind you that there are some of us who really believe we have the words of God without error in the English language. If you too had this belief, you would defend the word of God against all others who claimed to be the word of God, but was not. Never make it a salvation issue. God never promised to preserve His words in every language, but He did command that we preach the gospel of Christ to everyone.
Any good translation will do the job. And the Greek texts are even closer than translations.
If by "certain" you mean "does the comma belongs there and there?" then no, we dont have this kind of certainity. It was all added later and you must consider all possibilities.
Your barking up the wrong tree pal...the words inspired were not ANOTHER.....so....wake up to the truth....the King Jim was not inspired by God......
Of course you can beleive that if you like, but it is a delusion based on flimsey ecvidence. SO what about the 6 billion people in the world who can not understand English? How do you covey to them the perfect texts. Why would God only give a fraction of his people a perfect bible? Extremly flawed logic.
Ok, then do we have a Bible that every fact contained within is true and without error?