This post is prompted by two other currently ongoing discussions, one on the age of accountability and the other on repentance.
The question of to whom was the price for sin paid can be a tricky one. If we say it was paid to Satan, the question becomes where did Satan get the authority to claim such a huge payment from, as according to Job, Satan can only go as far as God permits so do we claim that God gave Satan permission to claim such a payment. If we appeal to the law demanding such a payment, we ignore that the law was made for the benefit of humanity, not humanity for the benefit of the law. But some will say that God paid the price to himself, which then raises the question of, since this amounts to moving money from one packet to another and claiming that a bill was paid, so again, why the high price?
What is your answer and how does it fit with the whole of scripture?
The question of to whom was the price for sin paid can be a tricky one. If we say it was paid to Satan, the question becomes where did Satan get the authority to claim such a huge payment from, as according to Job, Satan can only go as far as God permits so do we claim that God gave Satan permission to claim such a payment. If we appeal to the law demanding such a payment, we ignore that the law was made for the benefit of humanity, not humanity for the benefit of the law. But some will say that God paid the price to himself, which then raises the question of, since this amounts to moving money from one packet to another and claiming that a bill was paid, so again, why the high price?
What is your answer and how does it fit with the whole of scripture?