A
Anna80
Guest
Hello everyone!
I would really appreciate some input on this situation.
I have a friend who was married to a Christian man but although there was physical intimacy the actual physical union did not happen between them. Eventually she ended up sleeping with a non-Christian and divorced her husband. Later on she got together with another man, also a non-Christian, and got a baby with him. In the meantime this man became a Christian and wants to have a family with her. My question is, in the light of the Bible, should she get back with the first husband? Was their marriage valid if they did not become one physically?
Thank you.
I would really appreciate some input on this situation.
I have a friend who was married to a Christian man but although there was physical intimacy the actual physical union did not happen between them. Eventually she ended up sleeping with a non-Christian and divorced her husband. Later on she got together with another man, also a non-Christian, and got a baby with him. In the meantime this man became a Christian and wants to have a family with her. My question is, in the light of the Bible, should she get back with the first husband? Was their marriage valid if they did not become one physically?
Thank you.