I NEVER said that the dispensation of the law and grace were the same. I believe that from Adam until the law God's grace was in effect, since there was no law. Then the dispensation of law. Then " For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ." John 1:17, What do you call the time before the law?
Was Mary Sinless?
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I never claimed you did but spirit is born of God and I showed you what animals are made of which, once again, you simply ignored.
Then what is born of God?
Some dead spirit?
You go in circles. Why?
The devil uses you to waste our time and try to frustrate those wanting to continue maturing in understanding.
Your function is to hold others back... If you can.
I do not know with certainty why anyone would want to hold your position.
But it looks like it is based upon personal envy of those who can succeed.
And, you don't want them to.
For the word of God is alive and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword,
piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a
discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.
Hebrews 4:12
True. One needs to open their eyes, the other needs to open their ears. Some keep both shut are and doubly doomed.
I answered, if you remember ...
the period of time when God dealt with the elder in the family. The elder generation was to teach the younger generation ... pass the truth of God and His Word down to children and to children's children.
God refers to the period of time in which we now live ... the age which began on Day of Pentecost ... as the "dispensation of the grace of God" (Ephesians 3:2).
I believe there is a difference between the era before the giving of the law to Moses and the era in which we now live, even though God's grace has been showered upon every era from the very beginning.
The reason I believe there is a difference is because the Lord Jesus Christ had to come, fulfill His ministry, be crucified, rise from the dead, ascend into heaven before He could send the Comforter:
John 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
do you understand what Jesus said in John 16:7? ... that He had to go away in order that He could send the Comforter?
Believers who lived in the period of time you are asking about were saved by grace through faith just as we are ... they were told of (and believed in) the Messiah Who would come ... but they did not have the Comforter as we in our day and time have the Comforter.
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No one said you said the dispensation of the law and grace were the same.
You and I have been discussing the period of time before the "dispensation of the law".
here is what you said (bold mine):
There were about 2,000 years of grace ( Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression." Rom. 4:15), 2,000 years of the law and now over 2,000 years of grace again, in this present time.
" For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ." John 1:17. I agree, grace has been since Adam ( God covered them in blood after they had sinned) but Gods' wrath was displayed in the dispensation of the law. " Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression." Rom.4:15. That's why I believe that the dispensation before the law was grace also. That doesn't mean that God's wrath WASN'T displayed before the law ( Noah), but for the most part it was grace before the law, IMHO.
It appears to me that you are saying the time before God gave the law to Moses was the same as the time in which we now live ... the time after Day of Pentecost.
You and I are in agreement that God's grace has been in effect throughout all ages ... God's grace existed in the past ... God's grace continues today ... God's grace will continue in ages to come.
We are in the process of ferreting out the difference between the time before the giving of the law and the time after Day of Pentecost.
God's Word refers to the time after Day of Pentecost as "the dispensation of the grace of God" (Ephesians 3:2). Does God ever refer to the period of time before the giving of the law as a specific "age" or "dispensation"?
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The Bible says that animals have spirits and that's settles it for me, for good.
I told you what I believe, if you disagree fine, but the question I have asked you, repeatedly, is what do YOU call the period of time before the law was given? AI summery to this question 1) " The dispensation before the law is often referred to as the " Patriarchal Age " ( or dispensation) 2) This time includes the time of the patriarchs: Abraham, Isaac and Jacob ( or Israel). 3) God's covenant with Abraham established a relationship based on faith, not law. 4) The focus was on personal relationship and direct communication with God. 5) Key events include the promises made to Abraham and the covenant of circumcision. 6) This age emphasizes GRACE and FAITH as foundational principles before the Mosaic law was given." Just as this dispensation emphasizes. So, IMHO, calling that period of time a time of grace is not out of line.
It says they have breath, just like men. It says they are made from the earth and it says spirit is born of Spirit. But please feel free to refuse to believe any of that.
What is born of God??? Was Adam? Was Eve? No, you say? Why? Is it because they were created from dust of the ground? Just as the animals God formed. God created all life then to procreate, so the first birth of man occurred when Eve gave birth to Cain and Abel, The animals also procreated after it's own kind, God set that in motion. The ultimate reason for ALL births is God, so in that sense EVERYTHING is born of God, yes even the " waster to destroy " Isaiah 54:16. Circle that.
Yes, settling on the Word of God causes you not to OVERTHINK things. I just agree with His Word and let you erudite guys and gals run around in circles trying to disprove God's Word.
The Bible says that both, man and beast, have spirits, feel free to disbelieve all of that.
The breath of life came into Adam AFTER his body was formed directly from God. Only his body was created from the earth.
It is one thing to overthink, it is quite another to not think at all.
Again, the Bible says both men and beasts have breath. You are free to disregard context and meaning if you wish but you do so at your peril.
Adam had no belly button.
Neither did Eve.
But, after their creation?
All of the rest of us who descended from them have been born.
As for the rest of your statement?
Its like trying to hold a conversation with a drunk.
You are drunk on your own little box of power.
I don't call it anything. I refer to it as the period of time between the garden of Eden and the giving of the law to Moses. It was a period of time when God dealt with the elder in the family. The elder generation was to teach the younger generation ... pass the truth of God and His Word down to children and to children's children.
AI is not Scripture.
In discussing this period of time, if someone says "Patriarchal Age" I understand the time to which they are referring ... just as I would think you could understand when I refer to that era as "a period of time when God dealt with the elder in the family" or "a period of time between the garden of Eden and the giving of the law to Moses".
We both know what we're talking about if you say "Patriarchal Age" and/or I say "a period of time when God dealt with the elder in the family" or "a period of time between the garden of Eden and the giving of the law to Moses".
That is not the issue ... the issue is whether the "Patriarchal Age" (as you call it) is the same as the time we live in now after Day of Pentecost ... "the dispensation of the grace of God" (Ephesians 3:2).
According to Scripture, the "Patriarchal Age" cannot be the same as this "dispensation of the grace of God" as the Lord Jesus Christ had to come, fulfill His earthly ministry, suffer the crucifixion, be raised from the dead, and ascend up into heaven before He could send the Comforter.
John 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
The Comforter is "the promise of the Father" the Lord Jesus Christ told the apostles to "wait for" the day He ascended into heaven:
Acts 1:4 And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me.
... and by the way ... the purpose of the law ... the law was a tutor to bring people to Christ:
Galatians 3:24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Throughout all ages, salvation has always been / is now / always will be by grace through faith.
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God gave the dispensation of law to prove to man that he could never satisfy the requirements of righteousness on his own, that he needed a Savior. The law fulfilled it's purpose. Then, in the Person of Jesus the Christ, grace, truth and faith manifested on earth. It was not, as you have agreed, as though they didn't exist before, but now man has seen and handled God's grace, truth and faith in person and can give eyewitness accounts to pass on to others through their writings. This they could not do before the law. IMHO, it's either grace or law. No, the Bible doesn't refer , with a name , to that period of time but, to me , it was a period of grace.