I guess some people do not wish to hear or discuss anything.
I gave you the greek for the word nation. Which can be translated nation, People group, Gentile (non jewish) or heathen.
The exact same word is used in matt 6: 32 -[SUP]32 [/SUP]For after all these things the Gentiles seek. For your heavenly Father knows that you need all these things.
God said he took it from them (Israel as a nation or people group) and gave it to another group of people (nation or group) Did this happen? Can we prove it?Or was it one nation? As YOU want us to believe?
lets look at the evidence..
1. Was the kingdon given to one nation? No. People who entered the kingdom came from many different nations, Israel, Rome, and Asia
2. Did any of these nations take control of the kingdom, and responsibility given originally to Israel, (The OT Church) to keep the oracles of God and spread the gospel to the nations? NO! it was held by the church, which after 70 AD, was held by the Gentiles (even though many jews were a part of it)
3. Is their scriptural proof?well I already gave it, but since people do not wish to comment on passages I give, or read up on it. I guess I will post it.
Romans 11:11–12 (NKJV)
[SUP]11 [/SUP]I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles (Same greek word translated nation in matt 24) . [SUP]12 [/SUP]Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness!
Romans 11:15 (NKJV)
[SUP]15 [/SUP]For if their being cast away is the reconciling of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead?
Romans 11:25 (NKJV)
[SUP]25 [/SUP]For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles (same greek word translated nation in matt 24) has come in.
what happens when the fullness of the gentiles comes in??
ALL ISRAEL WILL BE SAVED
whats this mean? The kingdom is returned to Israel. with as scripture says, christ as her king!
but some people do not want to see this.
You are trying to tell us that "the kingdom of God" (Matt. 21:43) is going to be given---to the people it was taken from. This is confusion to say the least.
Your entire argument is based on the mistaken notion that the people (Judean nation) the kingdom was taken from were the entirety of Israel. This could not be further from the truth. The Judean Pharisees and their loyalists were only a small portion of the total Israelite population at that time, a fact you conveniently ignore.
Also, I specifically asked that you identify the ethnicity of the Christians called "Gentiles" in the NT epistles. This you did not do. All you did is dogmatically assume that, because they are called "Gentiles" they could not have been Israelites. Thus do you build another error upon the first. You do not understand that when "the kingdom of God" was taken from the Judean Pharisees it was not taken from Israel. It was taken from a portion only of Israel.
I will ask again that you identify the ancestry of Christians called "Gentiles" in the NT epistles. And again, be specific. Tell us if they were Edomites, Canaanites, Eskimos, Pacific Islanders, or whatever. Do not just dogmatically say that, because they were not Jews, they could not be Israelites. Their ethnic back round (if you are willing to accept it) is in the context of Romans and other NT epistles.
The bottom line is that the kingdom of God was never taken from God's Israel covenant people, from the Judean nation yes, but they were only a small portion of Israel at that time.