When is the night coming when no one can work?

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Hakawaka

Hakawaka

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Jul 1, 2021
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John 9:4
As long as it is day, we must do the works of him who sent me. Night is coming, when no one can work.

Do you believe this to be an escatological time, a time of great deception when God sends the strong delusion?

I read up some commentaries and many claim its just death, but I feel like that interpretation wouldn't work because the apostles continued working after Jesus died. And if its talking about our death, then its just an obvious statement. I believe the eshcatological view of it makes more sense.

You guys give your insight on this. Im counting on you
 
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It doesn't say "we" it says "me", so Christ was speaking about himself. As long as he, the light of the world, was in the world he could work, but his departure from the world was approaching in which he could no longer do the works the father sent him to do. I think he was speaking in general terms when he said no man can work when it's dark, and not specifically that no works of God would be done when he was gone.
 
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His works continue through His Own as He said His Own would do greater works than He whereas most would have an outward form of godliness denying the Power.
blessings
 
ChristRoseFromTheDead said:
It doesn't say "we" it says "me", so Christ was speaking about himself. As long as he, the light of the world, was in the world he could work, but his departure from the world was approaching in which he could no longer do the works the father sent him to do. I think he was speaking in general terms when he said no man can work when it's dark, and not specifically that no works of God would be done when he was gone.
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Interesting,

I must work the works of Him who sent Me while it is day; the night is coming when no one can work.
John 9:4 NKJV
 
HeIsHere said:
Interesting,

I must work the works of Him who sent Me while it is day; the night is coming when no one can work.
John 9:4 NKJV
Click to expand...

The Greek word is εμέ, which is a prolonged form of μέ, which means me and is pronounced like the English me. Why so many bible translators changed it to "we" is baffling.
 
"We" comes from different manuscripts than the Textus Receptus. Vaticanus, for example has the Greek ἡμᾶς (we) rather than εμέ. So Bibles that follow the critical text are going to say we rather than I.
 
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Here is the KJV and NKJV

Notice there is no we in the text

John 9 KJV

9 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth.

2 And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?

3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

4 I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.

5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.



John 9 NKJV

A Man Born Blind Receives Sight
9 Now as Jesus passed by, He saw a man who was blind from birth.

2 And His disciples asked Him, saying, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”

3 Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but that the works of God should be revealed in him.

4 I must work the works of Him who sent Me while it is day; the night is coming when no one can work.

5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”


Now many translations use ------WE ----in John 9:4----

New American Standard Bible
We must carry out the works of Him who sent Me as long as it is day; night is coming, when no one can work.


I say --------So who is the WE ---that is the Question ------

One must really Look at the Context of this Scripture ----it kinda helps you figure it out

Jesus is healing a Blind man who was blind from Birth -----this is a healing that only God can do ---Verse 3 says ----

John 9:3
Berean Literal Bible
Jesus answered, "Neither this man sinned, nor his parents; but it was that the works of God should be displayed in him.

KJV says
works of God should be made manifest in him.

NKJV says

works of God should be revealed in him.


I say ----------SO God made this man blind as a means to Glorify Christ ------

So the ----WE ------here in this passage ----is Jesus and the Holy Spirit ------not the Disciples -----

Jesus is the light in the world ----which represents the day so His Presents in the world makes this Work possible ----
and the Darkness represents His absents which is when His work will stop here on this earth -----

Found this ---read if your interested

https://versebyverseministry.org/bible-answers/who-is-jesus-referring-to-when-he-says-we-in-john-94

Bible Answer
Who is the "We" in John 9:4?
December 26, 2017
 
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