So lets take this a different way. You are asking me if your explanation (above) makes sense? So I can choose to see it a different way. Right? Do I really have that choice? I certainly do - but when I express what you have said in two different way (as now in this post and previously in post
#55) begs a question. Am I acting wilfully - contentiously - falsely - or am I lacking in ordinary intelligence? Perhaps it could be a cultural fact of language that directs me as a British English speaker to misunderstand your expressions or it may be that I don't have too much affection for the US. Or perhaps even an arrogance or it could be malice. How will you know what it is?
Yet your entire explanation to everything I have written is that you cannot understand a word of it. Yet all I actually said to you which you resisted completely was that Adam was not deceived.
And here in this element of the long post you made to express many truths - yet you assert the same claim once again. The bible doesn't tell us that Adam looked at anything - yet you express yourself grammatically in a manner that asserts that he did when you explain
"you can literally watch thier mind change from what she told him that God said , to what she now perceived that he said"
Out of that grammatical dial (direction) it stands that Adam was deceived. If you are implying that Adam had his mind changed to believe a lie - then you are implying that he was deceived. And so if we imply things of Adam that the bible doesn't say of him - but expressly tells us the complete opposite thing - then we are missing the reason why he did sin when he listened to his wife after she was already deceived and in sin and death. He wasn't deceived was he? If he were deceived and if his mind had already laid hold of the lie that they would not die - and this effect began to produce an effect that had both of them looking at the fruit and discerning that it was good for food and good to make them wise - then Adam was in the precise same place as his wife was in and so she didn't need to say anything to him at all. He would have simply eaten as well. Neither are we told what Adam's wife said to him after she had eden. But we do know she said something because that is what Adam told God.
It is important that believers really understand what deception is - because it is often not nearly as easy to understand as we believe it to be. Adam and his wife were innocent when this happened. You rightly point to the Scripture that God made the man - male and female - but that does not mean that Adam - the male - was deceived - it means that the woman - taken from the man - was deceived and she knew it because that is what she told God.
This OP is expressly about whether or not Satan speaks into the minds of men and women to deceive them. Well he does - but the means to do that is expressed from Genesis chapter two through to Genesis chapter six and the flood and it incorporates men, and women and angels. But in Genesis in the account of the fall of man - it didn't happen in Adam the male.
You asked me in another post if Eve had somehow deceived Adam - or more accurately you were asking if I thought that Eve had deceived Adam. The answer is that Adam acted in pure self interest - and in truth his sin was vastly greater than his wife's sin because it was predicated on a pure act of having regard for his wife. Whereas the woman sinned at a disadvantage because she was deceived. When Adam sinned he was still innocent - his wife was already in sin.
I won't post to anymore of your comments. I am sorry that I have bothered you with my words.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
