Why was Jesus named Jesus and not Immanuel

[trofimus]

"An angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said:
“Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”

All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
“The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”

Matthew 1

 

[trofimus]

This should be rendered as a question.

Why?

 

[MarcR]

"An angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said:
“Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”

All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
“The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”

Matthew 1

The NT is written in Koine Greek. The difference between Koine Greek and Classical Greek is that Koine Greek has a lot of Hebrew idiom superimposed on the Greek language. In Hebrew idiom the primary meaning of name is authority. Appellation (what one is called) is of secondary importance. The prophesy cited was actually written in Hebrew. Jesus authority was indeed that of God With Us.

 

[Angela53510]

Just to add, Immanuel literally means “God with us” in Hebrew! That was an exciting day in my Hebrew studies, when I figured that out. Not a name, so much as a prophecy and statement of fact!

 

[Willie-T]

Jesus is shorter and easier to spell.

 

[Tommy379]

Jesus is shorter and easier to spell.

I was kinda jealous of the kid that got the name Jesus, in Spanish class. Mine was Julio, not too bad.

 

[Magenta]

The Word (Who is God) became flesh and dwelt among us

 

[mcubed]

Y-shua(Yeshua) means salvation. Matthew is written just like a Jewish rabbi would write, a play on of words from Isaiah 9. Those that read it in real time would have understood.

 

[OtherWay210]

When you say Jesus Christ , that means God's Savior . Jesus is really said Yeshua. The OT equivalent would be Joshua . In English, you might spell it Jeshua in the OT. The name is throughout the OT many times.


The name Christ comes from Greek,; meaning to anoint will oil, or The anointed one . When you're talking about The Savior, it is Messiah . Like here

John 4:25 kjv
The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.

And read John 1:14 kjv .


Emanuel, is God with Us . Jesus, is from old English, and back in the 1600's J was pronounced with a Y sound . English being a transitional language, pronunciation changed .

Yeshua was transliterated from Greek to Hebrew, and kept the same sound . Even in English but English changed.

The Greek did not change, so its always good to consult Greek and Hebrew dictionaries of the Bible when you study . Like A Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the KJV bible. Esword has it built in, so theres no reason you cant use that to study this .

 

[OtherWay210]

The name EMMANUEL given to Christ is also fulfillment of prophecy, and is proof of Christ's deity . Heb. 'Immanuel = God ( El ) with us Isaiah 7:14; Isaiah 8:8 kjv )

 

[OtherWay210]

You can make a more thorough study of this if you take the time and research the facts online . Along with bible study .

 

[Nehemiah6]

Jesus is shorter and easier to spell.

Perhaps. But Jesus (Yeshua) means "God is [our] salvation" and that is the emphasis in the Gospels as well as the epistles. That is why Paul said "This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to SAVE SINNERS...". So this was also the focus when Joseph was told And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. (Mt 1:21).

 

[Johnny_B]

"An angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said:
“Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”

All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
“The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”

Matthew 1

You answered your own question when you quoted the Scripture.

Matthew 1:20-25 “But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.21 She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”22 All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet:

23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son,and they shall call his name Immanuel”

(which means, God with us).24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife,25 but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.”

Notice that the angel of the Lord said to Joseph that he would call His name Jesus, because He will save His people from thier sins. That is why His name is Jesus because He will save His people from thier sins. Then notice that in the prophesy it says, "they" shall call His name Immanuel" no mention of sin here or any mention of His people, the prophet accually disassoctites these people from the people like Joseph by using the pronoun, "they" shall call His name Immanuel and they are not saved from thier sins, because they are not Jesus' people.

Also in the Hebrew culture name is associated with the persons nature as they did with Esau and Jacob in Genesis 25:24-26

“When her days to give birth were completed, behold, there were twins in her womb.25 The first came out red, all his body like a hairy cloak, so they called his name Esau.26 Afterward his brother came out with his hand holding Esau's heel, so his name was called Jacob. Isaac was sixty years old when she bore them.”

You can read some books on culture and customs of the Hebrew people and in some cases a child was not named until they were 2 or 3 years old, to determine what their nature was. Jesus' nature is to save His people and to those that He does not save, He is God with us, since His nature is God and He is in the world or was in the world. Now the Greek word for name, has the idea of authority or carries with it authority, this is where we get the saying, "stop in the name of the law." What is the name of the law? It has none, but it does carry authority with it. In the Hebrew culture, name, means nature and in the Greek culture, name, means authority or carries the idea of authority with it.

 

[Adstar]

When you say Jesus Christ , that means God's Savior . Jesus is really said Yeshua. The OT equivalent would be Joshua . In English, you might spell it Jeshua in the OT. The name is throughout the OT many times.


The name Christ comes from Greek,; meaning to anoint will oil, or The anointed one . When you're talking about The Savior, it is Messiah . Like here

John 4:25 kjv
The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.

And read John 1:14 kjv .


Emanuel, is God with Us . Jesus, is from old English, and back in the 1600's J was pronounced with a Y sound . English being a transitional language, pronunciation changed .

Yeshua was transliterated from Greek to Hebrew, and kept the same sound . Even in English but English changed.

The Greek did not change, so its always good to consult Greek and Hebrew dictionaries of the Bible when you study . Like A Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the KJV bible. Esword has it built in, so theres no reason you cant use that to study this .

Christ is the greek intrpretation of the word Messiah..
John 1: KJV
41 "He first findeth his own brother Simon, and saith unto him, We have found the Messias, which is, being interpreted, the Christ."


John 4: KJV
25 "The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. {26} Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he."

 

[trofimus]

The NT is written in Koine Greek. The difference between Koine Greek and Classical Greek is that Koine Greek has a lot of Hebrew idiom superimposed on the Greek language. In Hebrew idiom the primary meaning of name is authority. Appellation (what one is called) is of secondary importance. The prophesy cited was actually written in Hebrew. Jesus authority was indeed that of God With Us.

So, you are saying that Immanuel in the text is not a name and should be translated? Like:

"And they will say about him that God is with us"?

 

[unobtrusive]

The name Jesus in Greek is the same as Joshua in Hebrew, generally speaking. The name means ""Jehovah is salvation."

יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Joshua Yᵉhôwshûwaʻ Hebrew
Ἰησοῦς Jesus "Jehovah is salvation" Greek
Jesus written in Hebrew is spelled יְהושֻׁעַ and according to a later form, יֵשׁוּעַ, Syriac, i. e. "whose help is Jehovah"

Joshua physically lead Israel into the Promised land, as a "foreshadowing" of Jesus leading God's children into the spiritual Promised land, i.e. the Kingdom of God Almighty. Joshua in the OT is an "example" (parable of sorts) of the Gospel of Jesus Christ found in the NT.

"Immanuel" means "God with us."

 

[trofimus]

The name Jesus in Greek is the same as Joshua in Hebrew, generally speaking. The name means ""Jehovah is salvation."

יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Joshua Yᵉhôwshûwaʻ Hebrew
Ἰησοῦς Jesus "Jehovah is salvation" Greek
Jesus written in Hebrew is spelled יְהושֻׁעַ and according to a later form, יֵשׁוּעַ, Syriac, i. e. "whose help is Jehovah"

Joshua physically lead Israel into the Promised land, as a "foreshadowing" of Jesus leading God's children into the spiritual Promised land, i.e. the Kingdom of God Almighty. Joshua in the OT is an "example" (parable of sorts) of the Gospel of Jesus Christ found in the NT.

"Immanuel" means "God with us."

I get it. But why the prophecy did not say "they will call him Jesus", then?

 

[garee]

"An angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said:
“Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”

All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
“The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”

Matthew 1

I would suggest as one way to look at it.... Why not Emmanuel and not Jesus would because God is not a man as us, he was with the Son of man. We walk by faith. the unseen , the things seen reveal the unseen things of God, the eternal .

God I would think remains without mother and father beginning of Spirit life or end of Spirit life. Jesus as the Son of man resisted all attempts in men walking by sight worshiping that in which the eyes see..

Matthew 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Emanuel is the same authority that works in all believers who have the treasure of His authority in their new hearts .

2Corinthians 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.

I think we have the same authority to cry out in our hour of need (Abba father) as the Son of man ,Jesus over two thousands years ago.The kind of thing that brings joy at this time of the year..


Mark 14:36 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt.


Romans 8:15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

 

[MarcR]

So, you are saying that Immanuel in the text is not a name and should be translated? Like:

"And they will say about him that God is with us"?

A proper translation would be: His authority will be that of God With Us.

 

[unobtrusive]

I get it. But why the prophecy did not say "they will call him Jesus", then?

Because the OT was not originally written in Greek. When the great Patriarch Jacob was ready to depart from this world, he by the Holy Spirit was blessing his sons and prophetically foretelling their future experiences in those blessings. In verse 18 of Genesis 49 he exclaims, I have waited for thy salvation, 0 Lord! What he really did say and mean was, "To thy YESHUA (Jesus) I am looking, 0 Lord"; or, "In thy YESHUA (Jesus) I am hoping (trusting), Lord!" That makes much better sense. Of course YESHUA (Jesus) was the One in Whom Jacob was trusting to carry him safely over the chilly waters of the river of death. Jacob was a saved man, and did not wait until his dying moments to start trusting in the Lord. He just reminded God that he was at the same time comforting his own soul.

In Psalms 9:14, David bursts forth, I will rejoice in thy salvation.
What he actually did say and mean was, "I will rejoice in (with) thy YESHUA (Jesus)."

John 4:8-9

[SUP]8 [/SUP]Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
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[SUP]9 [/SUP]Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?
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