Living waters is a metaphoric use of water.
Living water is a reference to spiritual washing or purification of the soul that is accomplished by the Holy Spirit through the word of God at the moment of salvation, which is required to become born again which means "born from above" and enter the kingdom of God.
Water is also used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. Baptism does not avail to cleanse the heart from defilement, but our Lord did say, "Now ye are
clean through the word (not through plain ordinary H20) which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3).
In Ephesians 5:26, we see
washing of water by the word (not by plain ordinary H20).
Also in 1 Peter 1:22, we read - having been
born again, not of corruptible seed but incorruptible, through the word of God (not through plain ordinary H20) which lives and abides forever
Both of your verses are metaphoric. "Did you see that"?
What I see is you ignoring the obvious for the sake of accommodating your biased church doctrine. In John 4:10, Jesus said, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a
drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you
living water." In John 4:14, Jesus said, "but whoever
drinks of the
water that I shall give him will
never thirst. But the
water that I shall give him will become in him a
fountain of water springing up into everlasting life.
*So Jesus
connects this living water here with everlasting life. *Living water
is not water baptism. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, we also read -
..drink into one Spirit. *Perfect harmony*
Jesus uses the word "water" not the term "living waters" in John 3:5.
Jesus uses the word "water" in John 4:10,14 and qualifies what He means by it -- "living water." Jesus uses the word "water" not the term "baptism" in John 3:5 and since Jesus connects "living water" with receiving everlasting life in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39, it makes much more sense that water in John 3:5 is living water, rather than plain ordinary H20, which does not flow through our heart and has no power to cleanse the heart.
Water is not defined as anything but water unless verbiage is used to change its meaning, hence "living waters". Jesus did not tell Nicodemus, "unless one is born of living water and spirit".
Jesus clearly qualifies what He meant by "water" in John 4:10,14 as "living water" and connects it with receiving everlasting life, so why would it be any different in John 3:5 in which water is connected to becoming born again and entering the kingdom of God? Jesus did not tell Nicodemus, "unless one is
born of baptism and the Spirit."
*Once again, if "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.
You are shoehorning the word "living" in John 3:5 much like you shoehorn "alone" in John 3:16 and others.
Actually, you are "shoe-horning" the word "baptism" in John 3:5 much like you "shoe horn" the word "baptism" in John 3:16.
The Bible clearly states in John 3:16 and many other passages of scripture that we are saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications." (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8 etc..).
You don't need to add the word "alone" next to "belief/faith" in each of these passages of scripture in order to figure out that the words, "belief/faith" stand alone in connection with receiving eternal life/salvation. Do these many passages of scripture say belief/faith "plus something else?" Plus baptism, plus works? NO. So then it's faith (rightly understood) IN CHRIST ALONE.
Isn't it easier to just accept John 3:5. John 4:10 and John 7:37 as written? If you don't want the water in John 3:5 to mean H20 fine. But don't put words in verses that are not there. I accept the word baptism is not in John 3:5 ut I am not altering its meaning by adding "living" as you have done.
It's you who is putting words in verses (using your shoe horn) that are not there. I am simply harmonizing scripture with scripture (John 3:5; 4:10,14; 7:37-39).
Once again, the natural man cannot see pass his own sensibilities.
Oh the IRONY. The natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.