These Gentiles were not still lost int their sins prior to receiving water baptism. Lost unbelievers do not receive
the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:44-47; 11:17) and
spiritual gifts (tongues in this case) is only for the body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12). Acts 10:47, Can any man, though ever so rigid a Jew, forbid water, that these should not be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit as well as we and are already converts? The argument is conclusive; can we deny the SIGN (water baptism) to those who have received the thing signified? (Holy Spirit, Salvation). Are not those on whom God has bestowed the grace of the covenant plainly entitled to the seals of the covenant? Surely those that have received the Spirit as well as we ought to receive baptism as well as we; for it becomes us to follow God’s indications, and to take those into communion with us whom he has taken into communion with himself. Praise God! So "bring on the water" for these SAVED CONVERTS!
In Acts 11, Peter is explaining his actions that took place in chapter 10. He already said enough. If you would finish reading through verse 17, you would see that they received the Holy Spirit WHEN they BELIEVED ON THE LORD JESUS CHRIST, NOT BEFORE THEY HEARD NOTHING AT ALL. *Compare this with Acts 16:31, "BELIEVE ON THE LORD JESUS CHRIST AND YOU WILL BE SAVED." Amen!
Acts 10:44 says, "THE HOLY SPIRIT CAME ON ALL WHO HEARD THE MESSAGE, not on all who "heard nothing." They obviously heard enough, regardless of whether or not Peter was "still" speaking. "Began to speak" (Acts 11:15) and "still speaking" (Acts 10:44) are not in contradiction. Scripture cannot contradict other scripture my friend. Acts 10:44 says, while he was "still speaking," which means, he already started talking and said, "WHOSOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM RECEIVES REMISSION OF SINS." So obviously, began to speak can't mean, said nothing at all yet, because that would contradict, "still speaking." There is a difference between "as" I began to speak and "before" I began to speak.
Acts 10:47, Can any man, forbid water, that these should not be baptized, who
have received the Holy Spirit as well as we? The argument is conclusive; can we deny the SIGN (water baptism) to those who have received the thing signified?
(Holy Spirit, Salvation). Are not those on whom God has bestowed the grace of the covenant plainly entitled to the seals of the covenant? Surely those that have received the Spirit as well as we ought to receive baptism as well as we; for it becomes us to follow God’s indications, and to take those into communion with us whom he has taken into communion with himself. So "bring on the water" for these SAVED CONVERTS.
The evidence is overwhelming that these Gentles have BELIEVED, received the gift of the Holy Spirit and were saved and a part of the body of Christ before water baptism. Certain Jews may have wanted to forbid them from being baptized because of their unacceptance of these Gentiles, but Peter clearly states that SURELY NO ONE CAN REFUSE. These Gentiles were clearly SAVED BEFORE WATER BAPTISM and the Holy Spirit was proof of this. Praise God!
Before they were water baptized they already "received" the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:47). In view of this, there are three passages that demonstrate they were saved. They are Romans 8:9; Galatians 4:6 and 1 John 4:13.
Romans 8:9 - If one has received the Holy Spirit they "belong" to Christ. To belong to Christ does not describe a lost unbeliever but a saved believer - such was the case of these Gentiles
before they were water baptized.
Galatians 4:6 - And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying out, "Abba, Father!" This would only describe the condition of one who is saved - such was the case of these Gentiles
before they were water baptized.
1 John 4:13 - By this we know that we abide in Him, and He in us, because He has given us of His Spirit. Because they received the gift of the Holy Spirit, these Gentiles abided in God and God abided in them. To abide in God and to have God abide in you does not describe the condition of a lost unbeliever but a saved believer - such was the case of these Gentiles
before they were water baptized.
In regards to the thief on the cross, he received salvation through faith "apart from water baptism." Some may try to argue that the thief had already been converted, was water baptized, and the
fruit of that is being crucified as a thief? In Matthew 27:39-43, we see that those who passed by, along with the chief priests scribes and elders
blashemed, mocked and shook their heads at Jesus and EVEN THE ROBBERS WHO WERE CRUCIFIED WITH HIM REVILED HIM WITH THE SAME THING. More fruit? I certainly don't see being crucified as a thief, blasheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the fruit of repentance/faith. Yet, moments later, we see that the thief had a "change of mind" (repentance) placed his faith in Christ for salvation and was saved (Luke 23:40-43). Of course, he died before having the opportunity to be water baptized.