The Fiftheen Points of Universial Salvation Refuted

cfultz3 · Mar 7, 2012

Point one

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]Fifteen Bombs That Sank My Theological Ship[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]V.E. Jacobson[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]The following is taking from the URQA (Universal Reconciliation Questions and Answers) website. It is my objective to clarify from Scripture that these fifteen points of why Universal Reconciliation is believed is not a proper understanding of Scripture. [/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]I will state Scripture, and if you disagree, likewise quote Scripture. Otherwise, your words have no back-support, and would seem to be words of folly. [/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]To those certain ones who do not list Scripture, but simply damn those who do, to what purpose do you suppose your condemnation fulfill if not to your own hurt? [/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]V.E. Jacobson: [/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]Fifteen bombs exploded on my deck, wrecking my fine theological system.[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]If God will have all men to be saved, and if most men are lost, then how can God be supreme ([/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]I Timothy 2:3,4[/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif])?[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]Both Strong and Thayer explains that the word "will" which is used in 1Tim 2:4 means a "desire, hope, prefer, wish". Which is opposite in meaining to Joh 5:30. In which Jesus said, "...I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which has sent me". This "will (G2307)" is a "determination, choice, purpose, decree". It is the same will which God had when He willed creation into existence.[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]As for the verse being spoken about, it is clear from the 210 instances of G2309 that desire and not purpose is being spoken about. One could simple replace the renditions of G2309 with forms of "desire" and nothing at all would be lost in translation. [/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]1Pe 3:17 presents us with both words used very close together in the same verse. It says, "For it is better, if the [/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]will[/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif] of God [/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]be[/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif] so, that you suffer for well doing, than for evil doing." Would it not mean the same if we were to say, "...if God's will is desirious of such....".[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]So, we are left to understand from 1Tim 2:4 that God, indeed, "desires all to be saved, and come into the knowledge of the truth". But that wish (desire) will not be fulfilled, seeing that Mat 25:33-34, 41 tells us otherwise. If it were, however, God's purposed determnation (will) to save all, then Jesus in Mat 25 will have to answer to God the Father as to why He sent some to "the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels". God desires that no one sins, but we do. God desires all to call upon Him, but not all do.[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]But, instead, this is God's will (determination), that everyone who sees the son and believe on Him (His desire), should have everlasting life and I will raise him (the one who believes) during the last day. (Joh 6:40)[/FONT]

[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]God's supremcy has nothing to do with a man's will not to choose Him as his God. If He chooses to be his own god, or even Lucifer himself, so be it that he will be with his god. If God, as the fallen angels are a perfect example of freewill, will never force Himself on one, then what would make one think that He will force His Godhood upon those who rejected Him during the Judgment Day?[/FONT]

cfultz3 · Mar 7, 2012

I am just posting one point at a time so that we can talk about one subject without confustion.

enochson · Mar 7, 2012

funny king james say's will. so does young's concordance

cfultz3 · Mar 7, 2012

enochson said:

Will you likewise, study the Scripture. And from such prudence, prove me wrong. I find it funny that "will" can mean:
1) a future tense of "to be" (G2071), whosoever shall kill, shall be in danger of the judgment (Mat 5:21)
2) a "determination" (G2307), Thy will be done on Earth (Mat 6:10) That which He has determined to be will be.
3) a "desire" (G2309), If any man desires to sue you at law (Mat 5:40)
4) an "intention" (G3195), Harod intents to seek the young child and to kill Him (Mat 2:13)

But yet, I am determined that it shall be my intention to give you a desire for knowledge. Now, if "will" only means a "determination", would that sentence had sense?

2knowhim · Mar 7, 2012

KJV

1Ti 2:4 WhoG3739 willG2309 have allG3956 menG444 to be saved,G4982 andG2532 to comeG2064 untoG1519 the knowledgeG1922 of the truth.G225

From the Strongs concordance:

G2309
θέλω, ἐθέλω
thelō ethelō
thel'-o, eth-el'-o
Either the first or the second form may be used. In certain tenses θελέω theleō thel-eh'-o (and ἐθέλέω etheleō eth-el-eh'-o) are used, which are otherwise obsolete; apparently strengthened from the alternate form of G138; to determine (as an active voice option from subjective impulse; whereas G1014 properly denotes rather a passive voice acquiescence in objective considerations), that is, choose or prefer (literally or figuratively); by implication to wish, that is, be inclined to (sometimes adverbially gladly); impersonally for the future tense, to be about to; by Hebraism to delight in: - desire, be disposed (forward), intend, list, love, mean, please, have rather, (be) will (have, -ling, -ling [ly]).

The part that is in blue is the definition of the word will, and is opposition to the second part which is 1014 and denotes a passive voice.

But G138 is where the word (will) is strengthen from, and is as important as the word itself.

aihreomai
hahee-reh'-om-ahee
Probably akin to G142; to take for oneself, that is, to prefer. Some of the forms are borrowed from a cognate (ἕλλομαι hellomai), which is otherwise obsolete: - choose. Some of the forms are borrowed from a cognate hellomai, hel-lom-ahee; which is otherwise obsolete.

So now I see that He is Determined to have all men to be saved and come to the Knowledge of the Truth. Wow that's even better, thanks I never even bothered to look up the word.
I just knew God's Will was not to be compared to the will of man.

Ok, to have:

G3956
πᾶς
pas
pas
Including all the forms of declension; apparently a primary word; all, any, every, the whole: - all (manner of, means) alway (-s), any (one), X daily, + ever, every (one, way), as many as, + no (-thing), X throughly, whatsoever, whole, whosoever.

Nothing there out of place, means All, any, every, The Whole. Love it. so far so good.

Men:

G444
ἄνθρωπος
anthrōpos
anth'-ro-pos
From G435 and ὤψ ōps (the countenance; from G3700); manfaced, that is, a human being: - certain, man.

Ok, moving right along, To be saved:

G4982
σώζω
sōzō
sode'-zo
From a primary word σῶς sōs̄ (contraction for the obsolete σάος saos, “safe&#8221

; to save, that is, deliver or protect (literally or figuratively): - heal, preserve, save (self), do well, be (make) whole.

Nice, I like the deliver or protect, heal, preserve, but especially (make whole)

I think the rest speaks for itself, don't you?

So, God is Determined to have All of mankind, made Whole and come to the knowledge of the Truth.

Wow, Thanks that was Really Good.

Never knew it said that before.

Blessings

cfultz3 · Mar 7, 2012

2knowhim said:

That which follows the blue lettering is a further defining of the same Greek word which is marked out by G2309. In no dictionary is a word defined inside of another word's definition. However, it is clear here that a thesaurus list follows that definition.

However, if you wish to use only what is in the blue, then allow me to show you that the word "will" used in 1Ti 2:4 is still defined as a "desire. As you have said, "But G138 is where the word (will) is strengthen from, and is as important as the word itself." So please, let us go to G138 and see that it means, "to prefer, to choose". So, yes, G138 is important in defining "will" in 1 Ti 2:4 as a "desire". God indeed prefers all to be saved, but He knows not all will. He prefers that sin would not have entered into His plan, but it did.

2knowhim said:

2knowhim, please understand a word before using it, what you say by the words you use, affects those who read. It takes but a minute to look in a dictionary to understand that :

Determined = to be purposed, willed.
prefers = to choose for one's self.

2knowhim said:

I never knew it said He was determined to save all humans. So, do you think:
1) that Jesus will have to answer to God for going against His will, when He, Jesus, will send some to a resurrection of life and some to a resurrection of damnation?

2) Jesus will say to God when God will ask Him why He did not bring all out of Hades, "I was not able to fulfill your will?"

3) that God will force others to accept Him as their Savior? Is He a totalitarian over the freedom of others? Will He forgive Satan and his hordes, seeing that he also is reconciled under Universal Salvation?

2knowhim · Mar 7, 2012

cfultz3 said:

That which follows the blue lettering is a further defining of the same Greek word which is marked out by G2309. In no dictionary is a word defined inside of another word's definition. However, it is clear here that a thesaurus list follows that definition.

However, if you wish to use only what is in the blue, then allow me to show you that the word "will" used in 1Ti 2:4 is still defined as a "desire. As you have said, "But G138 is where the word (will) is strengthen from, and is as important as the word itself." So please, let us go to G138 and see that it means, "to prefer, to choose". So, yes, G138 is important in defining "will" in 1 Ti 2:4 as a "desire". God indeed prefers all to be saved, but He knows not all will. He prefers that sin would not have entered into His plan, but it did.

In this you do err, God and His foreknowledge knew very well what Adam would do, and if you don't think that it was necessary, then there is nothing that I can say that would change your mind.

But I know, I would not know Him as Mercy, if I never needed mercy, or know Him as Saviour if there was nothing to be saved from. Never known Him as Life, if I never knew Death. etc. etc......

There is Great Purpose in God, I pray that you find that, on this side Jordan.

2knowhim, please understand a word before using it, what you say by the words you use, affects those who read. It takes but a minute to look in a dictionary to understand that :

Ah, I thought that's what I just did. "will" is a English word that has been translated from the Greek isn't that what we should be looking at, the Greek definition?

Determined = to be purposed, willed.
prefers = to choose for one's self.

I never knew it said He was determined to save all humans. (well now you do) So, do you think:
1) that Jesus will have to answer to God for going against His will, when He, Jesus, will send some to a resurrection of life and some to a resurrection of damnation? Jesus never went against the Father's will.

2) Jesus will say to God when God will ask Him why He did not bring all out of Hades, "I was not able to fulfill your will?" Nope there won't ever be that possibility, for when All things are made subject unto Him, then He Himself will also be subject to the one who did put all things under Him. 1Co 15:28

3) that God will force others to accept Him as their Savior? Is He a totalitarian over the freedom of others? Yes, and thank God He is, for if He did not intervene in our lives we would still be following the world and our own ways. Will He forgive Satan and his hordes, seeing that he also is reconciled under Universal Salvation?

What is not of God will be burned up.

God changes the heart, so that the person can receive The Love of God, when this happens, it is not something that can be defined as "forced", Love is not forced, Love is received, and given back in return.

Blessings

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

2knowhim said:

Would you please quote and unquote things instread of making it part of a one quote?

Yes, that is why in His eternal plan to bring man back to Him, it became necessary that Christ should die, so that man would be given the choice to return to the previous state he once had in Eden. Man chose to disobey and Christ chose to obey. Therefore, only through Him can one be seen in God's eye as obedient. If it is God's will to have all saved, then what was the purpose of His Son having to die? If died when all would have been saved in the first place, then would not His death been in vain?

2knowhim said:

Yes we have, please look at post 4.

2knowhim said:

This does not answer the question. According to Universal Salvation, all are saved. So, if Jesus sends some to a resurrection of damnation, and it is God's determined will that all will be saved, then how do you answer for those who will be damned?

2knowhim said:

So, what do you say of those Jesus left in Hades? Did they accepy His message of salvation?

2knowhim said:

So then, why should I even believe in Christ? Why even acknowledge God? Why not just be another Hitler? Come now, is there not even an inclination that we cannot do as we please? What is the purpose of following God's will?

2knowhim said:

I stand at the door and knock and IF anyone will hear My voice and open the door, I will come in to him and sup with him, and he with Me. (Rev 3:20)

It seems to me, that one will have to come to Him and when that door is opened, He will come in. Or, according to Universal Salvaton, should it say, "If you do not answer when I knock, then I will knock the door down and make you let me in?"

2knowhim · Mar 8, 2012

Joh 6:44 No one is able to come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him, and I will raise him up in the last day.

Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

This does not answer the question. According to Universal Salvation, all are saved. So, if Jesus sends some to a resurrection of damnation, and it is God's determined will that all will be saved, then how do you answer for those who will be damned?

Study the word damned, it means Judgment.

If it is God's will to have all saved, then what was the purpose of His Son having to die? If died when all would have been saved in the first place, then would not His death been in vain?

It's because of His death, that All will be saved. His death could never be in vain if it saves All, how you could even ask that is beyond me.

Yes, that is why in His eternal plan to bring man back to Him, it became necessary that Christ should die, so that man would be given the choice to return to the previous state he once had in Eden. Man chose to disobey and Christ chose to obey. Therefore, only through Him can one be seen in God's eye as obedient. If it is God's will to have all saved, then what was the purpose of His Son having to die? If died when all would have been saved in the first place, then would not His death been in vain?

Are you kidding me with this? If you believe in Free will there is no point of us carrying on this conversation. Fallen man in that state does not seek God, he must be quickened by the Spirit, or drug to the cross by the Father.

Do you realize that The lamb was slain before the foundation of the world, and was only made manifest for us in these last days? How could you possibly think that if all are saved that His Life would be in vain.
It's because He was slain, that all will be saved. And this God did before it all began, in this alone it ought to speak to you as How Great and purposeful God is in everything He does.
Christ's Sacrifice of Himself for Salvation, must be as equal as the sin that He died for or else that would make it in vain, if He only died for a few, and by chance or choice....that is crazy.

So He laid down His life, suffered the Cross, in hopes of some of us making a choice for Him........PLEASE.

That is Ridiculous, you have no idea, of why He did what He did, if you could think such a thing.
I'm sorry, I thought we could discuss this, but I'm seeing now that you don't have a clue, so, I'm done with this, I hope you are happy in what you believe, because I leave you to it.

TheGrungeDiva · Mar 8, 2012

cfultz3 said:

The problem with this is that it assumes two things. (1) God wills all men to be saved, and (2) Most men are lost. I agree with #1, but I am not familiar with anything in Scripture that says #2, except that without Jesus all men are lost. Without Jesus, yes, all are lost. But Jesus DID come, was crucified, died, and was raised from death. So that kinda negates anything that relies on "without Jesus..."

In logic, it's this: "If not P, then Q." Well, we already believe P to be true, not false, so it doesn't matter what Q is, the sentence is useless.

So point 1 is meaningless. Next?

TheGrungeDiva · Mar 8, 2012

I am trying to understand: are you trying to prove or disprove universal salvation?

Israel · Mar 8, 2012

This is a funny thread! LOL! Even if the word is "desire", shall not God almighty get what He wants?

And of the resurrection of the damnation.

Now if you are in Christ, then you are CRUCIFIED with Him! So the life you live now is not yours but CHRIST who gave Himself for you. Shall you not reign 1000 years? Have you not eternal life in you and shall NEVER see death? And if so, IS THIS NOT THE FIRST RESURRECTION?

The rest of the dead lived not until 1000 years were finished. They were hurt by the second death or plainly, the death of death and hell.
Let's face it, men love death! There are some here that seems not to be able to sleep at night if no one will burn forever.

enochson · Mar 8, 2012

Israel said:

I was seating last night when "No matter what it is what make man think it won't come to past." Only the ego and pride of the frist adam my Lord. "Killing it on the cross was a good thing wasn't it!" Thank you Lord.

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

TheGrungeDiva said:

Disprove. The question in red is the question brought up by the author of "The Fifthteen Points of Universial Salvation". When I ask questions in my refutal, it is most likely a question of logic in opposition to the author, based upon what I just said.

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

TheGrungeDiva said:

Hi,
I cannot tell if you think that is my question or the question in refute to the author of "The Fifthteen Points of Universal Salvation". Either way, if you are saying that Christ's death covers the sins of all, and thus, all are saved, would you care to write verses in contradiction to mine so that we can talk about it?

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

Israel said:

1) God desired a perfect Eden, did He get it?
2) God desires that He only to be worship, is He?
3) God desires all to come into the knowledge of the saving grace of His Son, but does not some stomp upon His blood?

These questions can continue forever. But, as pertaining to God's will, is it not, "God said and it was so:

1) God willed creation into existence, and it was so.
2) Jesus fulfilled God's complete will, and it was so that He hanged upon a cross
3) God wills all things anew, so shall it be one day.

enochson · Mar 8, 2012

cfultz3 said:

1) God desired a perfect Eden, did He get it?
2) God desires that He only to be worship, is He?
3) God desires all to come into the knowledge of the saving grace of His Son, but does not some stomp upon His blood?

These questions can continue forever. But, as pertaining to God's will, is it not, "God said and it was so:

1) God willed creation into existence, and it was so.
2) Jesus fulfilled God's complete will, and it was so that He hanged upon a cross
3) God wills all things anew, so shall it be one day.

the answers is yes! Only a man of self pride and flesh can't see it.

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

2knowhim: Joh 6:44 No one is able to come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him, and I will raise him up in the last day.

2knowhim: Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

cfultz3:This does not answer the question. According to Universal Salvation, all are saved. So, if Jesus sends some to a resurrection of damnation, and it is God's determined will that all will be saved, then how do you answer for those who will be damned?

2knowhim: Study the word damned, it means Judgment.

cfultz3: what is a judgment if not a verdict? And what verdict will the wicked receive if not a verdiction of condemnation? A verdict which says you are guilty and will be thrown into the lake of fire prepared for the devil, the beast, the false prophet. So yes, they who are called by the Father are drawn by the Father to Christ, and one must be willing if one is to be able. Moses was drawn by the Father to free the Israelites. But because of his questioning of God's ability, he was not permitted to enter the promised land. So, if one questions God's ability in His Salvation plan, namly, the Christ, would that one be allowed in the promised land of His Kingdom?
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cfultz3:If it is God's will to have all saved, then what was the purpose of His Son having to die? If died when all would have been saved in the first place, then would not His death been in vain?

2knowhim: It's because of His death, that All will be saved. His death could never be in vain if it saves All, how you could even ask that is beyond me.

cfultz3: But if it is God's determined purpose for all to be saved, then there is nothing in Heaven, Earth, even Hades which could have stopped it. Is it not true that "God said...and it was so"? So, if it were God's purposed will, then all He had to do was to say it and it would have been. So I ask again to those of the Universal Salvation plan, what was the purpose of Jesus having to die if all God had to do was to WILL it so? Did He not die so that He could bring many brothers into salvation and to rid reality of the wicked. No, I say, to return God's Paradise back to its rightful owner, God. If God cursed the angels who fell, what would He do to those who follow such a path, if not the same? Would it be fair if God cursed the fallen angels who rebelled against His soveniety, and not the humans who do the same?
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cfultz3:Yes, that is why in His eternal plan to bring man back to Him, it became necessary that Christ should die, so that man would be given the choice to return to the previous state he once had in Eden. Man chose to disobey and Christ chose to obey. Therefore, only through Him can one be seen in God's eye as obedient. If it is God's will to have all saved, then what was the purpose of His Son having to die? If died when all would have been saved in the first place, then would not His death been in vain?

2knowhim: Are you kidding me with this? If you believe in Free will there is no point of us carrying on this conversation. Fallen man in that state does not seek God, he must be quickened by the Spirit, or drug to the cross by the Father.

cfultz3: I and everyone else are free to choice between life or death. God has set before us, "life and death, blessing and cursing. Therefore, choose life so that both you and your seed may live" (Deu 30:15, 19, Jer 21:8) "In the way of righteousness is life, and in its pathway , there is no death". (Pro 12:28) Some choose death over life, (Jer 8:3) and to that, Jesus says, "Verily, verily, I say to you, 'He who hears my word and believes on Him who sent Me has everlasting life and shall not come into condemnation, but is passed from death into life'". (Joh 5:24) What part of freewill doesn't those of the Universal Salvation plan see when it says, "he who hears and believes"?
　
Come now, let us be reasonable. Do you purpose by saying "drug to the cross by the Father" that those who were forced into salvation will not looked upon God with contempt? Does not God condemn kidnapping? Would not that be what He would be doing if He took the children of Lucifer away from him?
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2knowhim: Do you realize that The lamb was slain before the foundation of the world, and was only made manifest for us in these last days? How could you possibly think that if all are saved that His Life would be in vain.

It's because He was slain, that all will be saved. And this God did before it all began, in this alone it ought to speak to you as How Great and purposeful God is in everything He does.

cfultz3: I do not know if you intent to imply that He was died before He died on the cross or not, but what I know is that: so certain was God's Salvational plan that it was as though He had alreay died. But anyhow, I do not say, "if all are saved th[en] His Life would [have been] in vain". But, what I do say and ask, "If His death saved all, then did all in Hades accept His deliverance from Hades? If all are saved, then why does He give a judgment of condemnation to the wicked during His judgment? If all are saved, then why have judgment on the wicked?" Indeed, "His Life would be in vain" if He would have sinned, but He sinned not and became the the Author of Eternal Salvation to all those who obey him. (Heb 5:9) So, what is He to those who do not obey Him?
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2knowhim: Christ's Sacrifice of Himself for Salvation, must be as equal as the sin that He died for or else that would make it in vain, if He only died for a few, and by chance or choice....that is crazy.

cfultz3: So, the question remains, can I do as I please, knowing that under the Universal Salvation plan, I am saved no matter what I do? Or, are we not taught, "shall we sin because we are not under the law but under grace? God forbid! Do you not know, that to whom you yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants you are to whom you obey. Whether sin into DEATH, or obedience into RIGHTEOUSNESS"? (Rom 6:15-16) Again, by that which we choose to obey, we choose life or death.
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2knowhim: So He laid down His life, suffered the Cross, in hopes of some of us making a choice for Him........PLEASE.

cfultz3: Not in hope of some will choose Him, but for the sheep. (Joh 10:15)
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2knowhim: That is Ridiculous, you have no idea, of why He did what He did, if you could think such a thing.

cfultz3: Then enlighten me. I have not yet been convinced of that "truth" you hold. There must be more to convince me otherwise.

cfultz3 · Mar 8, 2012

1) God desired a perfect Eden, did He get it? No, but He will one day by His will
2) God desires that He only to be worship, is He? No, He will be one day by His will
3) God desires all to come into the knowledge of the saving grace of His Son, but does not some stomp upon His blood? Yes, but one day, they shall not be anymore by His will

These questions can continue forever. But, as pertaining to God's will, is it not, "God said and it was so:

1) God willed creation into existence, and it was so.
2) Jesus fulfilled God's complete will, and it was so that He hanged upon a cross
3) God wills all things anew, so shall it be one day.

TheGrungeDiva · Mar 8, 2012

cfultz3 said:

I'd be happy to.

Let's start with 2 Corinthians 5:14-15 or Romans 6:9-10. Christ died for ALL, that ALL might live in Christ eternally.

So, if you believe that Paul is authoritative, then all are saved.

If you don't believe that Paul is authoritative, then there's no point in claiming Scripture as your basis. You might as well rely on logic, and then we are still left with universal salvation.

Even using Paul, you also need to know some basic Greek Logic, because Paul certainly knew logic, and used it in his letters. One basic logic lesson children learned early on was as follows:
"If P then Q" does not imply "If not P then not Q" or "If Q then P." The only thing it implies is "If not Q then not P." This is called the "contrapositive principal." Think of it this way. "If this object is a laptop, then it is a computer." That is true. But is the opposite true? "If this object is a computer, then it must be a laptop." No, it could be a desktop or other type of computer. Also, "If this object is not a laptop, then it is not a computer" is similarly false for the same reasons. However, "If this object is not a computer, then it is not a laptop" is also true, because all laptops are also computers, so if you know that it isn't a computer, you have eliminated the possibility that it is a laptop. This basic piece of logic is just not taught in schools any more, so people get confused.

Paul says, "If you believe and are baptized, then you will be saved."
Paul knows full well that that does NOT imply, "If you do not believe and/or are not baptized, then you will not be saved." Nor does it imply, "In order to be saved, you must believe and be baptized." As a Greek citizen, Paul would have known this bit of logic very well. And if Paul had intended to say "the only way to be saved is to believe and be baptized," Paul would have said it that way. The fact that Paul said it the way he did is very telling. Belief+baptism is ONE way to salvation, not the only way. Jesus Christ can save whomever Jesus Christ wills (wants) to be saved. Since God wills EVERYONE to be saved, the only reason EVERYONE would not be saved is if God were not omnipotent.

I, for one, prefer to worship an omnipotent God. That doesn't mean everyone is saved NOW. But it does mean universal salvation EVENTUALLY. Just that some people will achieve it before others. The passages referring to hell (winnowing forks and purging flames, etc.) only make sense in terms of a purgatory or other temporary trial period preparing souls for heaven. A permanent hell contradicts everything that God is.

The Fiftheen Points of Universial Salvation Refuted

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